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nadya68 [22]
4 years ago
13

Inverse laplace transform of H(s) = 1/(s+4)^2

Mathematics
1 answer:
ziro4ka [17]4 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Inverse Laplace of \frac{1}{(S+4)^2} will be te^{-4t}

Step-by-step explanation:

We have to find the inverse Laplace transform of H(S)=\frac{1}{(S+4)^2}

We know that of \frac{1}{s+4} is e^{-4t}

As in H(s) there is square of s+4

So i inverse Laplace there will be multiplication of t

So the inverse Laplace of \frac{1}{(s+4)^2}  will be te^{-4t}

L^{-1}\frac{1}{(S+4)^2}=te^{-4t}

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Cot^2x csc^2x + 2 csc^2x –cot^2 = 2
kow [346]

Answer:

x = π/2 + πk

Step-by-step explanation:

cot² x csc² x + 2 csc² x − cot² x = 2

Multiply both sides by sin² x:

cot² x + 2 − cos² x = 2 sin² x

Add cos² x to both sides:

cot² x + 2 = 2 sin² x + cos² x

Pythagorean identity:

cot² x + 2 = sin² x + 1

Subtract 1 from both sides:

cot² x + 1 = sin² x

Pythagorean identity:

csc² x = sin² x

Multiply both sides by sin² x:

1 = sin⁴ x

Take the fourth root:

sin x = ±1

Solve for x:

x = π/2 + 2πk, 3π/2 + 2πk

Which simplifies to:

x = π/2 + πk

4 0
4 years ago
The area of a rectangular barnyard is given by the trinomial 6x2 + 7x – 20. What are the possible dimensions of the barnyard? Us
sertanlavr [38]
Area of a rectangular barnyard: A=6x^2+7x-20
A=6(6x^2+7x-20)/6
A=[(6^2)(x^2)+7(6x)-120]/6
A=[(6x)^2+7(6x)-120]/6
A=(6x+15)(6x-8)/6
A=(6x+15)(6x-8)/[(3)(2)]
A=(6x/3+15/3)(6x/2-8/2)
A=(2x+5)(3x-4)
A=bh
b=2x+5; h=3x-4
Answer: The possible dimensions of the barnyard are 2x+5 and 3x-4
8 0
3 years ago
WILL NAME brainliest
kolezko [41]

Answer:

x=13

Step-by-step explanation:

By the definition of an angle bisector, we have that 8x-23=5x+16.

We can add 23 to both sides to get 8x=5x+39.

We can then subtract 5x from both sides to get 3x=39.

We can finally divide both sides by 3 to get \boxed{x=13}

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
What does one eight equals
zvonat [6]
1/8 the fraction?

two eighths = 2/8=1/4
6 0
3 years ago
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Matt Bonner has 8 dimes, 9 pennies, and 4 quarters in his pocket. If each coin is equally likely to be pulled out of his pocket
Lesechka [4]

Answer:

B. 0.602%

Step-by-step explanation:

Probability is essentially (# times specific event will occur) / (# times general event will occur). Here, we have a few specific events: draw a quarter, draw a second quarter, draw a penny, and draw another penny. The general event will just be the number of coins there are to choose from.

The probability that the first draw is a quarter will be 4 / (4 + 8 + 9) = 4/21.

Since we've drawn one now, there's only 21 - 1 = 20 total coins left. The probability of drawing a second quarter is: (4 - 1) / (21 - 1) = 3/20.

The probability of drawing a penny is: 9 / (20 - 1) = 9/19.

The probability of drawing a second penny is: (9 - 1) / (19 - 1) = 8/18.

Multiply these four probabilities together:

(4/21) * (3/20) * (9/19) * (8/18) = 864 / 143640 ≈ 0.602%

The answer is B.

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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