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zheka24 [161]
3 years ago
9

What is your average velocity if you drive a distance of 113 km at a speed of 47 km/h, then the same distance at a speed of 66 k

m/h? Answer in units of km/h.
Physics
2 answers:
Sauron [17]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

V_{avg}=54.90\ km/h

Explanation:

Given that

Drive 113 km at 47 km/h and another 113 km at 66 km/h.

When distance is same then average velocity can be found by using below formula:

V_{avg}=\dfrac{2V_1V_2}{V_1+V_2}

Here

V_1= 47\ km/h

V_2= 66\ km/h

Now by putting the values

V_{avg}=\dfrac{2V_1V_2}{V_1+V_2}

V_{avg}=\dfrac{2\times 47\times 66}{47+66}

So

V_{avg}=54.90\ km/h

Svetlanka [38]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Average velocity v = 54.90 km/h

Explanation:

We have given the distance d = 113 km

First speed = 47 km/h

Time taken to cover 113 km with speed of 47 km/h

t=\frac{distance}{speed}=\frac{113}{47}=2.4042h

Time taken to cover 113 km with speed of 66 km/h

t=\frac{distance}{speed}=\frac{113}{66}=1.7121h

So total time = 2.4042+1.7121 =4.1163 hour

Total distance = 113+113=226 km

So average velocity v=\frac{distance}{time}=\frac{226}{4.1163}=54.90km/h

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asambeis [7]

Complete Question:

Check the file attached to get the complete question

Answer:

In the film Ice word Revenge, vehicle 2 did not fall of the cliff because, Weight_{vehicle 1} < Weight_{vehicle 2} but in Claire's test, vehicle 2 off the cliff because Weight_{vehicle 1} \geq Weight_{vehicle 2}

Explanation:

In Claire's test, the weight of vehicle 1 is either equal to or greater than the weight of vehicle 2, so it was sufficient to push it down the cliff.  In the film Ice word revenge, the weight of vehicle 1 is less than the weight of vehicle 2, it is not sufficient to make it fall off the cliff ( Note: Looking exactly the same in the movie, as Claire claimed, does not mean they have the same mass). Therefore if Claire wants a collision that will not make the vehicle 2 fall off the cliff, he should collide it with a vehicle of lesser mass/weight.

8 0
3 years ago
Use ideas of electromagnetic induction to explain how the input voltage is transformed into an output voltage
devlian [24]

With the help of a transformer  input voltage is transformed into an output voltage

​

<h3>What is induced voltage?</h3>

Electromagnetic induction is what causes the induced voltage. Electromagnetic induction is the process of generating emf (induced voltage) by subjecting a conductor to a magnetic field.

In this case, a magnet is pushed in and out of a wire coil attached to a high-resistance voltmeter.

Typically, a transformer's primary winding is attached to the input voltage source and changes electrical power into a magnetic field.

The secondary winding's role is to turn this alternating magnetic field into electricity, generating the necessary output voltage.

Hence with the help of a transformer input voltage is transformed into an output voltage.

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5 0
2 years ago
As 390 g of hot milk cools in a mug it transfers 30 000 j of heat to the environment. whats is the temperature change of the mil
Fed [463]
You have to use the specific heat equation. 

Q = cmΔT where Q is the energy, c is specific heat, m is mass, and ΔT is change in temp.

So we can substitute our variables into the equation.

30000J = (390g)(3.9J*g/C)ΔT

Solving for ΔT, we get:

30000J/[(390g)*(3.9J*g/C) = ΔT

ΔT = 19.72386588C

I'm assuming the temperature is C, since it was not specified.

Hope this helps!
8 0
3 years ago
An X-Ray tube is an evacuated glass tube, where the electrons are produced at one end and accelerated by a strong electric field
lawyer [7]

Answer:

a) ΔV = 25.59 V, b)  ΔV = 25.59 V,  c)  v = 7 10⁴ m / s,  v/c= 2.33 10⁻⁴ ,

v/c% = 2.33 10⁻²

Explanation:

a) The speed they ask for electrons is much lower than the speed of light, so we don't need relativistic corrections, let's use the concepts of energy

starting point. Where the electrons come out

          Em₀ = U = e DV

final point. Where they hit the target

          Em_f = K = ½ m v2

energy is conserved

          Em₀ = Em_f

         e ΔV = ½ m v²

         ΔV = \frac{1}{2} mv²/e     (1)

If the speed of light is c and this is 100% then 1% is

         v = 1% c = c / 100

         v = 3 10⁸/100 = 3 10⁶6 m/ s

let's calculate

         ΔV = \frac{1}{2}  \frac{9.1 \ 10^{-31} (3 10^6 )^2 }{ 1.6 10^{-19} }

         ΔV = 25.59 V

b) Ask for the potential difference for protons with the same kinetic energy as electrons

             K_e = K_p

              K_p = ½ m v_e²

              K_p = \frac{1}{2}  9.1 10⁻³¹ (3 10⁶)²

              K_p = 40.95 10⁻¹⁹ J

we substitute in equation 1

              ΔV = Kp / M

              ΔV = 40.95 10⁻¹⁹ / 1.6 10⁻¹⁹

              ΔV = 25.59 V

notice that these protons go much slower than electrons because their mass is greater

c) The speed of the protons is

             e ΔV = ½ M v²

             v² = 2 e ΔV / M

             v² = \frac{2 \ 1.6 \ 10^{-19} \ 25.59 }{1.67 \ 10^{-27} }

              v² = 49,035 10⁸

               v = 7 10⁴ m / s

Relation

        v/c = \frac{7 \ 10^4 }{ 3 \ 10^8}

        v/c= 2.33 10⁻⁴

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Slav-nsk [51]
<span>0.52% First, let's convert that speed into m/s. 150 km/h * 1000 m/km / 3600 s/h = 41.667 m/s Now let's see how much time gravity has to work on the ball. Divide the distance by the speed. 18 m / 41.667 m/s = 0.431996544 s Now multiply that time by the gravitational acceleration to see what the vertical component to the ball's speed that gravity adds. 0.431996544 s * 9.8 m/s^2 = 4.233566131 m/s Use the pythagorean theorem to get the new velocity of the ball. sqrt(41.667^2 + 4.234^2) = 41.882 m/s Finally, let's see what the difference is (41.882 - 41.667)/41.667 = 0.005159959 = 0.5159959% Rounding to 2 figures, gives 0.52%</span>
8 0
3 years ago
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