The answer is d that might help you
I'm sorry but I don't really understand the question. What is the quest actually asking???
By definition we know that the force is the vector product of the vector of the current by the length with the magnetic field vector. The current in this case goes in a positive "Y" direction. If we assume that the magnetic field goes in the positive "K" direction, then the result will be in the positive "X" direction. Attached solution.
Let's call the constant acceleration a.
At a time t, its speed will thus be v(t)=a*t+v0 where v0 is its initial speed, here 10 m/s. Hence v(t)=a*t+10.
From there we can deduce the position P(t)=a*t^2/2+10t+p0 where p0 is the initial position, here 0.
Hence P(t)=a*t^2/2+10t
Let's call T the time at which it's at 50 m/s, we know that P(T)=225m and that v(T)=50 m/s hence a*T+10=50 thus a=40/T and P(T)=(40/2+10)T=30T
Hence T=225/30=7.5
It took 7.5 seconds
The Bohr's proposal for the angular momentum of an electron in Bohr's model of the hydrogen atom is:
L=(n*h)/(2π), where n is the number of the energy level and h is the Planck's constant. This equation shows us the quantization of angular momentum of the electron. So the correct answer is the second one: Planck's constant.
