Assuming the order required is as n-> inf.
As n->inf, o(log(n+1)) -> o(log(n)) since the 1 is insignificant compared with n.
We can similarly drop the "1" as n-> inf, the expression becomes log(n^2+1) ->
log(n^2)=2log(n) which is still o(log(n)).
So yes, both are o(log(n)).
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Answer:
2006 sorry if I’m wrong I divided it by 2
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
h = 147 - 16t^2.
Step-by-step explanation:
Use the following equation of motion
h = ut + 1/2 gt^2 where h = height, u = initial velocity , g = acceleration due to gravity and t = the time.
So here we have:
h = 14t + 1/2 * -32 * t^2
h = 14t - 16t^2
Solution:
<u>Note that:</u>
- 2(Perimeter of smaller triangle) = Perimeter of larger triangle
<u>Using the perimeter of the smaller triangle, solve for x.</u>
- 2(Perimeter of smaller triangle) = Perimeter of larger triangle
- => 2(3.5 + x + h) = 7 + 4 + 2h
- => 7 + 2x + 2h = 7 + 4 + 2h
- => 2x = 4
- => x = 2
The length of x is 2 units.
Answer:
35%
Step-by-step explanation:
Data provided in the question:
P(Master card) = 27% = 0.27
P(American express card) = 19% = 0.19
P( Visa card ) = 22% = 0.22
P( Master and American express card ) = 9% = 0.09
P( Visa and master card ) = 14% = 0.14
P( American express and visa card ) = 6% = 0.06
Now,
The probability of selecting a family that has either a Visa card or an American Express card
= P( Visa card ) + P( American express card ) - P( Visa and American express card )
= 0.22 + 0.19 - 0.06
= 0.35
or
= 0.35 × 100% = 35%