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3 years ago

Somebody help. WILL GIVE BRAINLIEST.

Physics

1 answer:

vladimir2022 [97]3 years ago

3 0

Answer:

1. Pour the mixture in to bucket of water - Saw dust

2. Pass a magnet through mixture - Iron pieces

3. Press the mixture through a screen - Glass marbles

4. Evaporate the water - Salt

5. Pour the mixture through a filter - Sand

6. Remove a material floating through a surface -Saw dust

HOPE THIS WILL HELP YOU

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What transfers energy in the form of vibrating electric and magnetic fields?

Rashid [163]

Electromagnetic waves are waves that consist of vibrating electric and magnetic fields. They transfer energy through matter or across space. The transfer of energy by electromagnetic waves is called electromagnetic radiation. ... The two vibrating fields together form an electromagnetic wave.

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3 years ago

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A proton has been accelerated from rest through a potential difference of -1000 v . part a what is the proton's kinetic energy,

wlad13 [49]

We can apply the law of conservation of energy here. The total energy of the proton must remain constant, so the sum of the variation of electric potential energy and of kinetic energy of the proton must be zero:
$\Delta U + \Delta K=0$
which means
$\Delta K = - \Delta U$
The variation of electric potential energy is equal to the product between the charge of the proton (q=1eV) and the potential difference ( $\Delta V=-1000 V$ ):
$\Delta U = q \Delta V=(1 eV)(-1000 V)=-1000 eV$
Therefore, the kinetic energy gained by the proton is
$\Delta K = -(-1000 eV)=1000 eV$
<span>And since the initial kinetic energy of the proton was zero (it started from rest), then this 1000 eV corresponds to the final kinetic energy of the proton.</span>

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3 years ago

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Aloop of wire of area 71 cm^2 is placed with its plane parallel to a 16 mt magnetic field. the loop is then rotated so that its

kkurt [141]

Answer:

Approximately 1.62 × 10⁻⁴ V.

Explanation:

The average EMF in the coil is equal to

$\displaystyle \frac{\text{Final Magnetic Flux} - \text{Initial Magnetic Flux}}{2}$ ,

Why does this formula work?

By Faraday's Law of Induction, the EMF $\epsilon$ induced in a coil (one loop) is equal to the rate of change in the magnetic flux $\Phi$ through the coil.

$\displaystyle \epsilon(t) = \frac{d}{dt}(\Phi(t))$ .

Finding the average EMF in the coil is similar to finding the average velocity.

$\displaystyle \text{Average}\; \epsilon = \frac{1}{t}\int_0^t \epsilon(t)\cdot dt$ .

However, by the Fundamental Theorem of Calculus, integration reverts the action of differentiation. That is:

$\displaystyle \int_0^{t} \epsilon(t)\cdot dt = \int_0^{t} \frac{d}{dt}\Phi(t)\cdot dt = \Phi(t) - \Phi(0)$ .

Hence the equation

$\displaystyle \text{Average}\; \epsilon = \frac{1}{t}\int_0^t \epsilon(t)\cdot dt = \frac{\Phi(t)- \Phi(0)}{t}$ .

Note that information about the constant term in the original function will be lost. However, since this integral is a definite one, the constant term in $\Phi(t)$ won't matter.

Apply this formula to this question. Note that $\Phi$ , the magnetic flux through the coil, can be calculated with the equation

$\Phi = B \cdot A \cdot N \; \sin{\theta}$ .

For this question,

$B = \rm 16\; mT = 16\times 10^{-3}\; T$ is the strength of the magnetic field.
$A = \rm 71\; cm^{2} = 71\times \left(10^{-2}\right)^2 \; m^{2}$ is the area of the coil.
$N = 1$ is the number of loops in the coil.
$\theta$ is the angle between the field lines and the coil.
At $\rm 0\;s$ , the field lines are parallel to the coil, $\theta = 0^{\circ}$ .
At $\rm 0.7\; s$ , the field lines are perpendicular to the coil, $\displaystyle \theta = 90^{\circ}$ .

Initial flux: $\Phi(0)= 0$ .

Final flux: $\Phi(0.7) = \rm 1.1136\times 10^{-4}\; Wb$ .

Average EMF, which is the same as the average rate of change in flux:

$\displaystyle \frac{\Phi(0.7) - \Phi(0)}{0.7} \approx\rm 1.62\times 10^{-4}\; V$ .

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4 years ago

Y=k/x, x is halved.<br> what happens to the value of y

IgorLugansk [536]

Answer:

y is doubled

Explanation:

If x is halved, that means the value is doubled. Here is an exmaple:

y=1/2. If the denominater is doubled, y would equal y=1/1. So, the value of y has doubled from 0.5 to 1. Therefore, if the denominator is halved, the solution will be doubled.

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3 years ago

PLEASE HELP!!!! What are 3 ways that machines can make doing work easier? (thats the whole question)

Rudiy27

Answer:

Machines reduce the time of work hence reducing the rate of doing work ( power ).

Machines e.g pulleys carry heavy loads with a less and reasonable effort.

Machines e.g generators induce current in a limited amount of time

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3 years ago

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