Answer:
4:28
Explanation:
4:28am
a 12 hour clock continues going up after 12 (1:00pm=13:00). minutes stay the same. 12:00pm=00:00. this shows 4:28am, so you count 4 after 00:00.
Answer:
168.57 mV
Explanation:
Initial magnetic flux = BA , B magnetic field and A is area of loop
= .35 x 3.14 x .37²
= .15 Weber
Final magnetic flux
= - .2 x 3.14 x .37²
= - .086 Weber
change in flux
.15 + .086
= .236 Weber
rate of change of flux
= .236 / 1.4
= .16857 V
= 168.57 mV
Answer: 2.068*
m
Explanation: According to work energy-theorem , the workdone in accelerating the electron equals the energy it would give off in terms of light.
workdone= qV
energy = hc/λ
q=magnitude of an electronic charge= 1.602*
h= planck constant = 6.626*
c= speed of light =2.998* 
v= potential difference= 6*
λ= wavelength=unknown
by making λ subject of formulae we have that
λ= 
λ = 6.626* * 2.998* / 1.602* * 6*
λ = 
by doing the necessary calculations, we have that
λ = 2.068*m
Answer:
D. Calculate the area under the graph.
Explanation:
The distance made during a particular period of time is calculated as (distance in m) = (velocity in m/s) * (time in s)
You can think of such a calculation as determining the area of a rectangle whose sides are velocity and time period. If you make the time period very very small, the rectangle will become a narrow "bar" - a bar with height determined by the average velocity during that corresponding short period of time. The area is, again, the distance made during that time. Now, you can cover the entire area under the curve using such narrow bars. Their areas adds up, approximately, to the total distance made over the entire span of motion. From this you can already see why the answer D is the correct one.
Going even further, one can make the rectangular bars arbitrarily narrow and cover the area under the curve with more and more of these. In fact, in the limit, this is something called a Riemann sum and leads to the definition of the Riemann integral. Using calculus, the area under a curve (hence the distance in this case) can be calculated precisely, under certain existence criteria.
The correct answer is A. 32.5
Mechanical advantage is the ratio of force that is input into a machine to the force output.
Mechanical advantage of a wheel and axle is calculated by dividing the radius of the wheel by that of the axle.
MA=R/r where R is the radius of the wheel and r is the radius of the axle.
Substituting for the values in the question gives:
MA=26cm/0.8cm
=32.5
