Answer:
Mean = 20
Variance = 16
Step-by-step explanation:
Solution:-
- Let X be the number of customers paying with a debit card. X has the binomial distribution with n = 100 trials and success probability p = 0.2
- In general, if X has the binomial distribution with (n) trials and a success probability of (p) then:
P[X = x] = n!/(x!(n-x)!) * p^x * (1-p)^(n-x)
for values of x = 0, 1, 2, ..., n
P[X = x] = 0 for any other value of x.
- The probability mass function is derived by looking at the number of combination of x objects chosen from n objects and then a total of x success and n - x failures.
- Or, in other words, the binomial is the sum of n independent and identically distributed Bernoulli trials.
X ~ Binomial( n = 100 , p = 0.2 )
- The mean of the binomial distribution is n * p = 20
- The variance of the binomial distribution is n * p * (1 - p) = 16
C = 11*(2*d) Try it and see that it fits every sample you have. Again this can be simplified to
C = 22 * d
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
8×4=32
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
Use these formulas
Now solve
Answer: Choice B
(-1,0), (-1,-2), (-3, -1), and (-3, -2)
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Explanation:
Let's focus on the point (2,0)
If we shift it 3 units to the left, then we subtract 3 from the x coordinate to get 2-3 = -1 as its new x coordinate. The y coordinate stays the same.
That means we move from (2,0) to (-1,0)
Based on this alone, choice B must be the answer as it's the only answer choice that mentions (-1,0).
If you shifted the other given points, you should find that they land on other coordinates mentioned in choice B.
