Answer:
Explanation:
The direction of propagation of electromagnetic wave
is given by the direction of vector E x B where E is electrical field , B is magnetic field .
Given Electric field = E i because it is along x axis
Magnetic field = Bj because it is along y axis
E x B = Ei x Bj
= EB k .
so direction of E x B is along k direction or z - axis so wave is propagating along z - axis .
Voltage, V = IR
Where I is current in Ampere, R is Resistance in Ohms.
V = 9A * 43 Ω
V = 387 V
Answer:
1-d
2- a
3-e
4-b
5-c
This is the correct sequence
Answer:
Time of flight A is greatest
Explanation:
Let u₁ , u₂, u₃ be their initial velocity and θ₁ , θ₂ and θ₃ be their angle of projection. They all achieve a common highest height of H.
So
H = u₁² sin²θ₁ /2g
H = u₂² sin²θ₂ /2g
H = u₃² sin²θ₃ /2g
On the basis of these equation we can write
u₁ sinθ₁ =u₂ sinθ₂=u₃ sinθ₃
For maximum range we can write
D = u₁² sin2θ₁ /g
1.5 D = u₂² sin2θ₂ / g
2 D =u₃² sin2θ₃ / g
1.5 D / D = u₂² sin2θ₂ /u₁² sin2θ₁
1.5 = u₂ cosθ₂ /u₁ cosθ₁ ( since , u₁ sinθ₁ =u₂ sinθ₂ )
u₂ cosθ₂ >u₁ cosθ₁
u₂ sinθ₂ < u₁ sinθ₁
2u₂ sinθ₂ / g < 2u₁ sinθ₁ /g
Time of flight B < Time of flight A
Similarly we can prove
Time of flight C < Time of flight B
Hence Time of flight A is greatest .
Answer:
0.4
Explanation:
F-Fr=ma where F is applied force, Fr is friction, m is mass and a is acceleration.
Since the mass is moving with a constant velocity, there's no acceleration hence
where N is the weight of object and \mu is coefficient of kinetic friction.
![F=\mu N and making [tex]\mu](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=F%3D%5Cmu%20N%20and%20making%20%5Btex%5D%5Cmu)
the subject
Substituting F for 8 N and N for 20 N
Therefore, coefficient of kinetic friction is 0.4
