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Solnce55 [7]
4 years ago
8

X-rays are used instead of visible light because X-rays have shorter ______________ than visible light, allowing them to produce

images of much greater detail.
Physics
2 answers:
Novay_Z [31]4 years ago
4 0
X-rays have shorter wavelength than visible light. But that's hardly the reason that they're used for medical imaging. xrays have much higher frequencies then visible light which means they have much greater penetrating ability. with xrays you can see inside the body. you can't do that with a visible flashlight no matter how bright and powerful it is.
anastassius [24]4 years ago
3 0

i think it might be wavelengths.. but don't quote me on that

You might be interested in
Determine the ratio of the flow rate through capillary tubes A and B (that is, Qa/Qb).
Oliga [24]

To solve this problem we can use the concepts related to the change of flow of a fluid within a tube, which is without a rubuleous movement and therefore has a laminar fluid.

It is sometimes called Poiseuille’s law for laminar flow, or simply Poiseuille’s law.

The mathematical equation that expresses this concept is

\dot{Q} = \frac{\pi r^4 (P_2-P_1)}{8\eta L}

Where

P = Pressure at each point

r = Radius

\eta = Viscosity

l = Length

Of all these variables we have so much that the change in pressure and viscosity remains constant so the ratio between the two flows would be

\frac{\dot{Q_A}}{\dot{Q_B}} = \frac{r_A^4}{r_B^4}\frac{L_B}{L_A}

From the problem two terms are given

R_A = \frac{R_B}{2}

L_A = 2L_B

Replacing we have to

\frac{\dot{Q_A}}{\dot{Q_B}} = \frac{r_A^4}{r_B^4}\frac{L_B}{L_A}

\frac{\dot{Q_A}}{\dot{Q_B}} = \frac{r_B^4}{16*r_B^4}\frac{L_B}{2*L_B}

\frac{\dot{Q_A}}{\dot{Q_B}} = \frac{1}{32}

Therefore the ratio of the flow rate through capillary tubes A and B is 1/32

6 0
3 years ago
What is the potential energy of the system composed of the three charges q1, q3, and q4, when q1 is at point R? Define the poten
Ad libitum [116K]

Answer:

Incomplete question check attachment for complete question

Also it is given that

q1=-0.7uC

q4=-1.7uC

q3=-1.7uC

Also the distance are given as

a=2.2cm=0.022m

d2=3.6cm=0.036m

Explanation:

The potential energy due to point R is given as

The potential energy due to charge q1 and q3 plus the potential energy due to charge q4 and q1 plus the potential energy due to charge q3 and q4

So, let take it one after the other

Potential energy is give as

P.E=kq1q2/r

Therefore,

Potential energy due to charge q1 and q3

U¹³=kq1q3/r

To get the distance between charge q1 and q3, we will apply Pythagoras theorem

r=√(d2²+a²)

r=√(0.036²+0.022²)

r=0.0422m

k is a constant =9×10^9Nm²/C²

Then,

U¹³=kq1q3/r

U¹³=9×10^9×0.7×10^-6×1.7×10^-6/0.0422

U¹³=0.254J

Potential energy due to charge q1 and q4

U¹⁴=kq1q4/r

To get the distance between charge q1 and q4, we will apply Pythagoras theorem

r=√(d2²+a²)

r=√(0.036²+0.022²)

r=0.0422m

k is a constant =9×10^9Nm²/C²

Then,

U¹⁴=kq1q4/r

U¹⁴=9×10^9×0.7×10^-6×1.7×10^-6/0.0422

U¹⁴=0.254J

Potential energy due to charge q3 and q4

U³⁴=kq3q4/r

r=2a=2×0.022=0.044m

k is a constant =9×10^9Nm²/C²

Then,

U³⁴=kq3q4/r

U³⁴=9×10^9×1.7×10^-6×1.7×10^-6/0.044

U¹⁴=0.591J

Then, the total energy is

U= U¹³+ U¹⁴ + U³⁴

U=0.254+0.254+0.591

U=1.099J

Then also, the potential energy is zero because at infinity both U¹³ and U¹⁴ will have infinite potential because their distance apart will be infinite.

6 0
3 years ago
A 12-inch object is placed 30 inches in front of a plane mirror. A ray of light from the object strikes the mirror at a 45-degre
gtnhenbr [62]

I believe that it is C.24 inches

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
What is the relationship of an object's acceleration, its mass and the force applied to it?
Anon25 [30]

Answer:

F = ma

Explanation:

Newtons second law

8 0
3 years ago
Please help I’ll give brainliest
lara [203]
I think the answer is B
6 0
3 years ago
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