Answer:
The velocity of the fluid is 1.1012 m/s
Solution:
As per the question, for the fluid:
Diameter of the capillary tube, d = 1.0 mm = ![1.0\times 10^{- 3} m](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=1.0%5Ctimes%2010%5E%7B-%203%7D%20m)
Reynolds No., R = 1000
Kinematic viscosity, ![\mu_{k} = 1.1012\times 10^{- 6} m^{2}/s](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cmu_%7Bk%7D%20%3D%201.1012%5Ctimes%2010%5E%7B-%206%7D%20m%5E%7B2%7D%2Fs)
Now, for the fluid velocity, we use the relation:
![R = \frac{v_{f}\times d}{\mu_{k}}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=R%20%3D%20%5Cfrac%7Bv_%7Bf%7D%5Ctimes%20d%7D%7B%5Cmu_%7Bk%7D%7D)
where
= velocity of fluid
![v_{f} = \frac{R\times \mu_{k}}{d}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=v_%7Bf%7D%20%3D%20%5Cfrac%7BR%5Ctimes%20%5Cmu_%7Bk%7D%7D%7Bd%7D)
![v_{f} = \frac{1000\times 1.1012\times 10^{- 6}}{1.0\times 10^{- 3}} = 1.1012 m/s](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=v_%7Bf%7D%20%3D%20%5Cfrac%7B1000%5Ctimes%201.1012%5Ctimes%2010%5E%7B-%206%7D%7D%7B1.0%5Ctimes%2010%5E%7B-%203%7D%7D%20%3D%201.1012%20m%2Fs)
Answer:
No
Explanation:
As we know that in practical engine there always present the friction between the two parts,always there present heat transfer due to finite temperature difference ,it means that the real engine can not be totally reversible engine.And on the other hand Carnot heat engine is a totally reversible heat engine.So we can say that a real heat engine efficiency is always less than Carnot engine.
Answer:the first is wrong because the s
Explanation:
the second is fake
Answer:
a drawing, at relatively large scale, of a part of a building, machine, etc., with dimensions or other information for use in construction.
Explanation: