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Artist 52 [7]
3 years ago
8

One end of a steel rod of radius R = 10 mm and length L = 80cm is held in a vise. A force of magnitude F = 60kN is then applied

perpendicularly to the end face (uniformly across the area) at the other end, pulling directly away from the vise. What is the stress on the rod?
Physics
1 answer:
Alexandra [31]3 years ago
8 0

Answer: 1.91*10^8 N/m²

Explanation:

Given

Radius of the steel, R = 10 mm = 0.01 m

Length of the steel, L = 80 cm = 0.8 m

Force applied on the steel, F = 60 kN

Stress on the rod, = ?

Area of the rod, A = πr²

A = 3.142 * 0.01²

A = 0.0003142

Stress = Force applied on the steel/Area of the steel

Stress = F/A

Stress = 60*10^3 / 0.0003142

Stress = 1.91*10^8 N/m²

From the calculations above, we can therefore say, the stress on the rod is 1.91*10^8 N/m²

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Answer:

the lowest frequency f of the sound wave is 214.375 Hz

Explanation:

The computation of the lowest frequency f of the sound wave is shown below;

Length = L= 80 cm

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V = 343 m/s (sound speed in air )

Now

V1 = n V ÷ 2 L

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V1 = 214.375 Hz

Hence, the lowest frequency f of the sound wave is 214.375 Hz

We simply applied the above formula so that the correct value could come

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The electron's velocity at that instant is purely horizontal with a magnitude of 2 \times 10^5 ~\text{m/s}2×10 ​5 ​​ m/s then ho
Lesechka [4]

Complete question:

At a particular instant, an electron is located at point (P) in a region of space with a uniform magnetic field that is directed vertically and has a magnitude of 3.47 mT. The electron's velocity at that instant is purely horizontal with a magnitude of 2×10​⁵​​ m/s then how long will it take for the particle to pass through point (P) again? Give your answer in nanoseconds.

[<em>Assume that this experiment takes place in deep space so that the effect of gravity is negligible.</em>]

Answer:

The time it will take the particle to pass through point (P) again is 1.639 ns.

Explanation:

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Also;

F = \frac{MV}{t}

solving this two equations together;

\frac{MV}{t} = qVB\\\\t = \frac{MV}{qVB} = \frac{M}{qB}

where;

m is the mass of electron = 9.11 x 10⁻³¹ kg

q is the charge of electron = 1.602 x 10⁻¹⁹ C

B is the strength of the magnetic field = 3.47 x 10⁻³ T

substitute these values and solve for t

t = \frac{M}{qB} = \frac{9.11 *10^{-31}}{1.602*10^{-19}*3.47*10^{-3}} = 1.639 *10^{-9}  \ s \ = 1.639 \ ns

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3 years ago
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statuscvo [17]

This might help and it might not:

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Gravitation is the force of attraction between any two bodies in the universe. In our universe, each object attracts each other with a certain amount of force. The large distance of separation is the main reason for its weak nature.

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2 years ago
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tresset_1 [31]

Answer:

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Explanation:

It is given that,

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Voltage source, V = 15 volt

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The inductive reactance of the circuit is equivalent to the impedance. It opposes the flow of electric current throughout the circuit. It is given by :

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So, the inductive reactance is 125.7 Ω. Hence, this is the required solution.

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