C it reduces the amount of useful work done on objects move it up the ramp
Answer:
<em>The magnetic field through the coil at first increases steadily up to its maximum value, and then decreases gradually to its minimum value.</em>
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Explanation:
At first, the magnet fall towards the coils; inducing a gradually increasing magnetic field through the coil as it falls into the coil. At the instance when half the magnet coincides with the coil, the magnetic field magnitude on the coil is at its maximum value. When the magnet falls pass the coil towards the floor, the magnetic field then starts to decrease gradually from a strong magnitude to a weak magnitude.
This action creates a changing magnetic flux around the coil. The result is that an induced current is induced in the coil, and the induced current in the coil will flow in such a way as to oppose the action of the falling magnet. This is based on lenz law that states that the induced current acts in such a way as to oppose the motion or the action that produces it.
Answer:
The correct answers are
(a) It decreases to 1/3 L
(ii) is (c) It is constant
Explanation:
to solve this, we list out the number of knowns and unknowns so as to determine the correct equation to solve the problem
The given variables are as follows
Initial volume V1 = 1L
V2 = Unknown
Initial Temperature T1 = 300K
let us assume that the balloon is perfectly elastic
At 300K the balloon is filled and it stretches to maintain 1 atmosphere
at 100K the content of the balloon cools reducing the excitement of the gas content which also reduces the pressure, however, the balloon being perfectly elastic, contracts to maintain the 1 atmospheric pressure, hence the answer to (ii) is (c) It is constant,
For (i) since we know that the pressure of the balloon is constant
by Charles Law V1/T1 =V2/T2
or V2 = (V1/T1)×T2 =
× 
= 
× L = L/3 hence the correct answer to (i) is 1/3L
The only graph that accurately depict the given motion is graph D.
The given parameters;
- initial position of the man = 0
- direction of the man's first displacement = backward
- time of first motion, t₁ = 6 seconds
- velocity of this first displacement = v₁
- time without any motion (<em>zero movement</em>) = 6 seconds
- direction of the second displacement = forward
- velocity of second displacement = 2v₁
Let the acceleration of the first displacement = a
Acceleration of the second displacement = 2a
From the given graphs we can eliminate every graph without initial decrease or motion towards the negative direction.
The only options with initial motion towards the negative direction are;
The difference between graph B and D;
- in graph B there is a uniform motion for 6 seconds
- in graph D there is no motion for 6 seconds (<em>this is obvious as the line fall directly on top of the horizontal axis maintaining a value of zero for 6 seconds</em>).
Thus, the only graph that accurately depict the given motion is graph D.
Learn more here: brainly.com/question/21095906
