Answer:
t = 1.16 s.
Explanation:
Given,
speed of conveyor belt, v = 3.2 m/s
coefficient of friction,f = 0.28
Using newton second law
f = ma
and we also know that frictional force
f = μ N
f = μ m g
equating both the force equation
a = μ g
a = 0.28 x 9.81
a = 2.75 m/s²
Using Kinematic equation
v = u + at
3.2 = 0 + 2.75 x t
t = 1.16 s.
Time taken by the box to move without slipping is 1.16 s.
Answer:
The answer to your question is given below.
Explanation:
Mechanical advantage (MA) = Load (L)/Effort (E)
MA = L/E
Velocity ratio (VR) = Distance moved by load (l) / Distance moved by effort (e)
VR = l/e
Efficiency = work done by machine (Wd) /work put into the machine (Wp) x 100
Efficiency = Wd/Wp x100
Recall:
Work = Force x distance
Therefore,
Work done by machine (wd) = load (L) x distance (l)
Wd = L x l
Work put into the machine (Wp) = effort (E) x distance (e)
Wp = E x e
Note: the load and effort are measured in Newton (N), while the distance is measured in metre (m)
Efficiency = Wd/Wp x100
Efficiency = (L x l) / (E x e) x 100
Rearrange
Efficiency = L/E ÷ l/e x 100
But:
MA = L/E
VR = l/e
Therefore,
Efficiency = L/E ÷ l/e x 100
Efficiency = MA ÷ VR x 100
Efficiency = MA / VR x 100
Answer:
Explanation:
This is case of interference in thin films
for constructive interference in thin film the condition is
2μ t = (2n+1)λ/2 ; μ is refractive index of oil , t is thickness of oil , λ is wave length of light .
2 x 1.28 x t = λ/2 , if n = 0
2 x 1.28 x t = 605 /2
t = 118.16 nm .
the minimum non-zero thickness of the oil film required = 118.16 nm.
The answer to this question is False.
Answer:
1788.402 MJ
Explanation:
Work done = Force (N) x distance (m)
First we have to convert distance into metres:
173.8 x 1000 = 173,800 m
Then plug these values into the equation above:
173,800 x 10290 = 1788402000 J
The reason it's Joules (the unit for energy) is because work done = energy transferred
Now we have to convert Joules into Mega Joules:
1 J = 1/1000000 MJ
1788402000 J = 1788402000/ 1000000 = 1788.402 MJ