Answer:
it will move towards the object's magnetic south
Explanation:
The compass pints towards the earth geographic north because the magnetic south of the earth's magnetic field is located in there, if you placed such compass neaar the piece of ferromagnetic material, the magnetic field produced by the magnet will make the compass needle point towards its south magnetic pole, in the same fashion as it points to the earth's magnetic south. It will point to the object's south pole because the magnetic field will be stronger than the earth's (which is weak) that is because of the way magnetism works, opposite poles are attracted and similar poles will tend to separate from each other
Answer:
A) a = 2.31[m/s^2]; B) t = 14.4 [s]
Explanation:
We can solve this problem using the kinematic equations, but firts we must identify the data:
Vf= final velocity = take off velocity = 120[km/h]
Vi= initial velocity = 0, because the plane starts to move from the rest.
dx= distance to run = 240 [m]
![v_{f} ^{2} =v_{i} ^{2}+2*g*dx\\where:\\v_{f}=120[\frac{km}{h} ]*\frac{1hr}{3600sg} * \frac{1000m}{1km} =33.33[m/s]\\\\Replacing\\33.33^{2}=0+2*a*(240)\\ a=\frac{11108.88}{2*240}\\ a=2.31[m/s^2]\\](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=v_%7Bf%7D%20%5E%7B2%7D%20%3Dv_%7Bi%7D%20%5E%7B2%7D%2B2%2Ag%2Adx%5C%5Cwhere%3A%5C%5Cv_%7Bf%7D%3D120%5B%5Cfrac%7Bkm%7D%7Bh%7D%20%5D%2A%5Cfrac%7B1hr%7D%7B3600sg%7D%20%2A%20%5Cfrac%7B1000m%7D%7B1km%7D%20%3D33.33%5Bm%2Fs%5D%5C%5C%5C%5CReplacing%5C%5C33.33%5E%7B2%7D%3D0%2B2%2Aa%2A%28240%29%5C%5C%20a%3D%5Cfrac%7B11108.88%7D%7B2%2A240%7D%5C%5C%20%20a%3D2.31%5Bm%2Fs%5E2%5D%5C%5C)
To find the time we must use another kinematic equation.
![v_{f} =v_{i} +a*t\\replacing:\\33.33=0+(2.31*t)\\t=\frac{33.33}{2.31}\\ t=14.4[s]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=v_%7Bf%7D%20%3Dv_%7Bi%7D%20%2Ba%2At%5C%5Creplacing%3A%5C%5C33.33%3D0%2B%282.31%2At%29%5C%5Ct%3D%5Cfrac%7B33.33%7D%7B2.31%7D%5C%5C%20t%3D14.4%5Bs%5D)
If the velocity of the train is v=s/t, where s is the distance and t is time, then v=400/5=80m/s. To get the vertical component of the velocity we need to multiply the velocity v with a sin(α): Vv=v*sin(α), where Vv is the vertical component of the velocity and α is the angle with the horizontal. So:
Vv=80*sin(10)=80*0.1736=13.888 m/s.
So the vertical component of the velocity of the train is Vv=13.888 m/s.
Answer:
Explanation:
Let the volume below water be v . Then
buoyant force = v d g where d is density of water , g is acceleration due to gravity
= v x 1000 x g
weight of wood piece = volume x density of wood x g
= .6 x 600 x g
for equilibrium while floating
buoyant force = weight
= v x 1000 x g = .6 x 600 x g
v = .36 m²
volume above water or volume exposed = .6 - .36
= .24 m²
When immersed completely ,
buoyant force = .6 x 1000 x 9.8
= 5880 N
weight of wood
= .6 x 600 x g
= 3528 N
buoyant force is more than the weight . In order to equalise them for floating with full volume in water
weight required = 5880 - 3528
= 2352 N.
