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kari74 [83]
3 years ago
7

The current is suddenly turned off. How long does it take for the potential difference between points a and b to reach one-half

of its initial value

Physics
1 answer:
KonstantinChe [14]3 years ago
4 0

Complete Question

The complete  question is shown on the first uploaded image

Answer:

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

     The original voltage is  V_o

     The new voltage is V  =\frac{V_o}{2}

     The capacitance is  C = 150\ nF = 150 *10^{-9} \  F

     The first resistance is  R_i =  26 \Omega

      The second resistance is R_E =  200 \Omega

Generally the equivalent resistance is  

        R_e =  R_1 + R_E

=>     R_e =  26 +200

=>     R_e = 226 \ \Omega

Generally the time constant is mathematically represented as

     \tau  =  RC

=>  \tau  =  226 * 150 *10^{-9}

=>  \tau  =  3.39 *10^{-5} \  s

Generally the voltage is mathematically represented as

    V =  V_o  e^{-\frac{t}{\tau} }

=>   \frac{V_o}{2} =  V_o  e^{-\frac{t}{\tau} }

=>   0.5 =    e^{-\frac{t}{\tau} }

=>   ln(0.5) =    {-\frac{t}{ 3.39 *10^{-5} } }

=>  ln(0.5)   * 3.39 *10^{-5}  =   -t

=>  t = 2.35*10^{-5} \  s

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1.5891x10^-24

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What must the charge (sign and magnitude) of a particle of mass 1.41 gg be for it to remain stationary when placed in a downward
Yuri [45]

Answer:

q = 2.067 \times 10^{-5}\ C

Explanation:

Given,

mass = 1.41 g = 0.00141 Kg

Electric field,E = 670 N/C.

We know,

Force in charge due to Electric field.

F = E q

And also we know

F = m g

Equating both the equation of motion

m g = E q

q =\dfrac{mg}{E}

q =\dfrac{0.00141 \times 9.81}{670}

q = 2.067 \times 10^{-5}\ C

Charge of the particle is equal to q = 2.067 \times 10^{-5}\ C

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3 years ago
In the process of making a rainbow, light enters the water droplet at location 1 and exits at location 3. Which
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3 years ago
What trends were seen in Mendeleev’s periodic table?
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3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Peter designed a road with a curve of radius 30 m that is banked so that a 950 kg car traveling at 40.0 km/h can round it even i
spayn [35]

Answer:

v = 15.56 m/s

v = 56 km/h

Explanation:

When coefficient of friction is approximately zero then we have

F_ncos\theta = mg

F_n sin\theta = \frac{mv^2}{R}

tan\theta = \frac{v^2}{Rg}

here we know that

v = 40 km/h = 11.11 m/s

R = 30 m

tan\theta = \frac{11.11^2}{30\times 9.81}

\theta = 22.75 degree

now when friction coefficient is 0.30 then we have

F_n cos\theta = mg + F_f sin\theta

F_f cos\theta + F_n sin\theta = \frac{mv^2}{R}

now we have

v = \sqrt{Rg(\frac{\mu + tan\theta}{1 - \mu tan\theta})}

v = \sqrt{30(9.81)(\frac{0.30 + tan22.75}{1 - (0.30) tan22.75})}

v = 15.56 m/s

v = 56 km/h

3 0
3 years ago
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