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weeeeeb [17]
3 years ago
5

(Thought question) At noon On June 21 will the shadow length of 42 degrees north latitude be shorter or longer than it is on Mar

ch 21? And, what is your reason for saying it will be either shorter or longer?
Physics
1 answer:
g100num [7]3 years ago
5 0

Answer: Shorter

Explanation: Shadow is formed when an light source is obstructed by an opaque object. The closer the source, shorter is the length of the shadow. In fact, when the source is exactly overhead, no shadow of the object is formed.

June 21 marks the Summer solstice which means the Sun passes directly overhead Tropic of cancer (23.5° N) at noon. March 21 marks the equinox which means sun passes directly overhead equator (0°).

Shadow length of an object at 42° Northern latitude will be shorter on June 21 because the Sun will be closer to this latitude as compared to March 21.

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A person is attracted towards the center of the earth by an 800 N gravitational force. The force with which the earth is attract
suter [353]

Answer:

800 N

Explanation:

By Newton's third law which states that for every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction.

So, as the earth attracts the person towards its center, the person attracts the earth towards itself with the same magnitude of force but in the opposite direction.

Since the person is attracted towards the center of the earth by an 800 N gravitational force, the  the earth is attracted toward the person with an 800 N reaction force.

7 0
2 years ago
I need HELP Please !!
aliya0001 [1]
You have to figure it out
5 0
3 years ago
Which method of heat transfer takes place when particles of matter vibrate and collide with each other in direct contact
Cerrena [4.2K]
Conduction, hope this helps! :)
6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Blood in a carotid artery carrying blood to the head is moving at 0.15 m/s when it reaches a section where plaque has narrowed t
sp2606 [1]

Answer:

26.9 Pa

Explanation:

We can answer this question by using the continuity equation, which states that the volume flow rate of a fluid in a pipe must be constant; mathematically:

A_1 v_1 = A_2 v_2 (1)

where

A_1 is the cross-sectional area of the 1st section of the pipe

A_2 is the cross-sectional area of the 2nd section of the pipe

v_1 is the velocity of the 1st section of the pipe

v_2 is the velocity of the 2nd section of the pipe

In this problem we have:

v_1=0.15 m/s is the velocity of blood in the 1st section

The diameter of the 2nd section is 74% of that of the 1st section, so

d_2=0.74d_1

The cross-sectional area is proportional to the square of the diameter, so:

A_2=(0.74)^2 A_1=0.548 A_1

And solving eq.(1) for v2, we find the final velocity:

v_2=\frac{A_1 v_1}{A_2}=\frac{A_1 (0.15)}{0.548 A_1}=0.274 m/s

Now we can use Bernoulli's equation to find the pressure drop:

p_1 + \frac{1}{2}\rho v_1^2 = p_2 + \frac{1}{2}\rho v_2^2

where

\rho=1025 kg/m^3 is the blood density

p_1,p_2 are the initial and final pressure

So the pressure drop is:

p_1 - p_2 = \frac{1}{2}\rho (v_2^2-v_1^2)=\frac{1}{2}(1025)(0.274^2-0.15^2)=26.9 Pa

8 0
3 years ago
A 50.0-kg projectile is fired at an angle of 30 degrees above thehorizontal with an initial speed of 1.20 x 102 m/s fromthe top
Advocard [28]

Answer:

a)  Em₀ = 42.96 104 J , b)   W_{fr} = -2.49 105 J , c)  vf = 3.75 m / s

Explanation:

The mechanical energy of a body is the sum of its kinetic energy plus the potential energies it has

        Em = K + U

a) Let's look for the initial mechanical energy

      Em₀ = K + U

      Em₀ = ½ m v2 + mg and

      Em₀ = ½ 50.0 (1.20 102) 2 + 50 9.8 142

      Em₀ = 36 104 + 6.96 104

      Em₀ = 42.96 104 J

b) The work of the friction force is equal to the change in the mechanical energy of the body

    W_{fr} = Em₂ -Em₀

     Em₂ = K + U

     Em₂ = ½ m v₂² + m g y₂

     Em₂ = ½ 50 85 2 + 50 9.8 427

     Em₂ = 180.625 + 2.09 105

     Em₂ = 1,806 105 J

     W_{fr} = Em₂ -Em₀

     W_{fr} = 1,806 105 - 4,296 105

     W_{fr} = -2.49 105 J

The negative sign indicates that the work that force and displacement have opposite directions

c) In this case the work of the friction going up is already calculated in part b and the work of the friction going down would be 1.5 that job

We have that the work of friction is equal to the change of mechanical energy

       W_{fr} = ΔEm

       W_{fr} = Emf - Emo

       -1.5 2.49 10⁵ = ½ m vf² - 42.96 10⁴

       ½ m vf² = -1.5 2.49 10⁵ + 4.296 10⁵

       ½ 50.0 vf² = 0.561

       vf = √ 0.561 25

      vf = 3.75 m / s

6 0
3 years ago
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