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marishachu [46]
3 years ago
5

At top speed, a coyote can run at a speed of 44 miles per hour. if a coyote could maintain its top speed, how far could it run i

n 15 minutes?
A- 2.93 miles
B- 11 miles
C- 176 miles
D- 660 miles
Mathematics
2 answers:
FromTheMoon [43]3 years ago
4 0
The anwser would be B -11 miles you just have to divide by 4
hjlf3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Option B is correct

11 miles

Step-by-step explanation:

Using formula:

\text{Distance} = \text{Speed} \times \text{Time}

As per the statement:

At top speed, a coyote can run at a speed of 44 miles per hour.

⇒Speed = 44 miles per hour

It is also given that:

Time =  15 minutes

Use conversion:

1 minute = \frac{1}{60} hours

then;

15 minutes =  \frac{15}{60} =\frac{1}{4} hours

Substitute the given values in the formula we have;

\text{Distance} = 44 \times \frac{1}{4} = 11 miles

Therefore, 11 miles  could it run in 15 minutes

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The probability that, at the tip of the fourth round, each of the players has four coins is 5/192.

Given that game consists of 4 rounds and every round, four balls are placed in an urn one green, one red, and two white.

It amounts to filling in an exceedingly 4×4 matrix. Columns C₁-C₄ are random draws each round; row of every player.

Also, let \%R_{A} be the quantity of nonzero elements in R_{A}.

Let C_{1}=\left(\begin{array}{l}1\\ -1\\ 0\\ 0\end{array}\right).

Parity demands that \%R_{A} and\%R_{B} must equal 2 or 4.

Case 1: \%R_{A}=4 and \%R_B=4. There are \left(\begin{array}{l}3\\ 2\end{array}\right)=3 ways to put 2-1's in R_A, so there are 3 ways.

Case 2: \%R_{A}=2 and \%R_B=4. There are 3 ways to position the -1 in R_A, 2 ways to put the remaining -1 in R_B (just don't put it under the -1 on top of it!), and a pair of ways for one among the opposite two players to draw the green ball. (We know it's green because Bernardo drew the red one.) we are able to just double to hide the case of \%R_{A}=4,\%R_{B}=2 for a complete of 24 ways.

Case 3: \%R_A=\%R_B=2. There are 3 ways to put the -1 in R_{A}. Now, there are two cases on what happens next.

  • The 1 in R_B goes directly under the -1 inR_A. There's obviously 1 way for that to happen. Then, there are 2 ways to permute the 2 pairs of 1,-1 in R_C andR_D. (Either the 1 comes first inR_C or the 1 comes first in R_D.)
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Hence, there are 3(2+2×2)=18 ways for this case. There's a grand total of 45 ways for this to happen, together with 12³ total cases. The probability we're soliciting for is thus 45/(12³)=5/192

Hence, at the top of the fourth round, each of the players has four coins probability is 5/192.

Learn more about probability and combination is brainly.com/question/3435109

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3 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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Readme [11.4K]

Answer:

BDC is half of mBC = 11°

Easily you see that C is A + BDC = 23°

Since C = 23° so mDC is twice = 46°

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8 0
3 years ago
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Answer:r = -1

Step-by-step explanation:

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Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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