The universe is made of a lot of galaxies. The likely explanation for a galaxy having more than one nucleus is that the galaxy must have swallowed several smaller galaxies that were its neighbors.
- There are some reason behind the theory that the eating up of a galaxy is by another galaxy. The galaxy is said to have a powerful past due to the fact that a lot of smaller galaxies were eaten up.
The universe is known to have a very largest galaxy called the giant elliptical galaxy that is made up of about a trillion stars.
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Answer:
Explanation:
In case of oil slick a thin layer of oil is formed on water . This thin layer creates a rainbow of colour . The phenomenon is due to interference of light waves , one reflected from the upper surface of oil and the other reflected from the lower surface of the oil.
For formation of bright colour
2 μ t = ( 2n + 1 ) λ / 2
μ is refractive index of oil , t is thickness of oil layer λ is wave length of light falling on the layer .
given μ = 1.2 , λ = 750 x 10⁻⁹ ,
2 x 1.2 t = ( 2n + 1 ) 750 x 10⁻⁹ / 2
For minimum thickness n = 0
2.4 t = 375 x 10⁻⁹
t = 156.25 n m
B ) If the refractive index of layer of medium below oil is less than that of oil , the condition of formation of colour changes
The new condition is
2 μ t = n λ
2 x 1.5 t = 750 nm , n = 1 for minimum wavelength .
t = 250 nm
C ) Light mostly transmitted means dark spot is formed at that point .
For that to be observed from water side , the condition is
2 μ t = ( 2n + 1 ) λ / 2
λ = 4μ t / ( 2n + 1 )
For maximum wavelength n = 0
λ = 4μ t
= 4 x 1.5 x 200 nm
= 1200 nm .
<span>answer under the link: http: //briskrange.com/7gAl
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Hi there!
We can use Newton's Second Law:

∑F = net force (N)
m = mass (kg)
a = acceleration (m/s²)
We are given the mass and acceleration, so:
∑F = 20 · 2 = <u>40 N</u>
Answer:
<h2>The pin's final velocity is 5m/s</h2>
Explanation:
Step one:
given data
mass of ball m1=5kg
initial velocity of ball u1=10m/s
mass of pin m2=2kg
initial velocity of pin u2= 0m/s
final velocity of ball v2=8m/s
final velocity of pin v2=?
Step two:
The expression for elastic collision is given as
m1u1+m2u2=m1v1+m2v2
substituting we have
5*10+2*0=5*8+2*v2
50+0=40+2v2
50-40=2v2
10=2v2
divide both sides by 2
v2=10/2
v2=5m/s
The pin's final velocity is 5m/s