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In-s [12.5K]
3 years ago
6

A falling skydiver has a mass of 105 kg. What is the magnitude of the skydiver's acceleration when the upward force of air resis

tance has a magnitude that is equal to one-half of his weight?
Physics
1 answer:
LenKa [72]3 years ago
7 0
F-free = m*g - F_air = m*a

F_air = 1.2 * m

a= (105 kg * 9.8 m.s^2 - 5*105) / 105 kg

a = 9.3 m/s

Hope this helps
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1. A base-ball of mass 0.3kg approaches the bat at a speed of 30 miles/hour and when the ball hits the bat for 0.5 s, it started
andre [41]

Answer:

I = 27kg.mi/h

Explanation:

In order to calculate the impulse of the ball, you use the following formula:

I=m\Delta v  =m(v-v_o)      (1)

m: mass of the ball = 0.3kg

v: speed of the ball after the bat hit it = 60mi/h

vo: speed of the ball before the bat hit it = 30mi/h

You replace the values of all parameters in the equation (1):

I=(0.3kg)(60mi/h-(-30mi/h))=27kg\frac{mi}{h}

where the minus sign of the initial velocity means that the motion of the ball is opposite to the final direction of such a motion.

The imulpse of the ball is 27 kg.miles/hour

5 0
3 years ago
The "steam" above a freshly made cup of instant coffee is really water vapor droplets condensing after evaporating from the hot
KiRa [710]

Answer:

T_{f} = 85.7 ° C

Explanation:

For this exercise we will use the calorimetry heat ratios, let's start with the heat lost by the evaporation of coffee, since it changes from liquid to vapor state

      Q₁ = m L

Where m is the evaporated mass (m = 2.00 103-3kg) and L is 2.26 106 J / kg, where we use the latent heat of the water

     Q₁ = 2.00 10⁻³ 2.26 10⁶

     Q1 = 4.52 10³ J

Now the heat of coffee in the cup, which does not change state is

     Q coffee = M c_{e} ( T_{f} -T_{i})

Since the only form of energy transfer is terminated, the heat transferred is equal to the evaporated heat

    Qc = - Q₁

    M ce (T_{f} -T_{i}) = - Q₁

The coffee dough left in the cup after evaporation is

    M = 250 -2 = 248 g = 0.248 kg

   T_{f} -Ti = -Q1 / M c_{e}

   T_{f} = Ti - Q1 / M c_{e}

Since coffee is essentially water, let's use the specific heat of water,

    c_{e}= 4186 J / kg ºC

Let's calculate

     T_{f} = 90.0 - 4.52 103 / (0.248 4.186 103)

     T_{f} = 90- 4.35

     T_{f} = 85.65 ° C

     T_{f} = 85.7 ° C

5 0
3 years ago
Valency of oxygen is two. why??​
AlexFokin [52]

Answer:

Tha valency of Oxygen is 2 because it need two atom of hydrogen to form water.

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A charged particle is moving in a uniform magnetic field at a speed of 8.2Ã10^3 m/s in a direction 87° from the direction of th
77julia77 [94]

Answer:

Magnetic field, B = 0.042 T

Explanation:

It is given that,

Speed of charged particle, v=8.2\times 10^3\ m/s

Angle between velocity and the magnetic field, \theta=87

Charge, q=5.7\ \mu C=5.7\times 10^{-6}\ C

Magnetic force, F = 0.002 N

The magnetic force is given by :

F=qvB\ sin\theta

B is the magnetic field  

B=\dfrac{F}{qv\ sin\theta}

B=\dfrac{0.002}{5.7\times 10^{-6}\times 8.2\times 10^3\times sin(87)}

B = 0.042 T

So, the strength of the magnetic field is 0.042 Tesla. Hence, this is the required solution.

5 0
3 years ago
Starting from rest, a 2-m-long pendulum swings from an angleof
Andrews [41]

Answer:

D.) 1m/s

Explanation:

Assume the initial angle of the swing is 12.8 degree with respect to the vertical. We can calculate the vertical distance from this initial point to the lowest point by first calculate the vertical distance from this point the the pivot point:

L_1 = L*cos(12.8) = 2*0.975 = 1.95 m

where L is the pendulum length

The vertical distance from the lowest point to the pivot point L_2 is the pendulum length 2m

this means the vertical distance from this initial point to the lowest point is simply:

L_3 = L_2 - L_1 = 2 - 1.95 = 0.05 m

As the pendulum travel (vertically) from the initial point to the bottom point, its potential energy is converted to kinetic energy:

E_p = E_k

mgh = mv^2/2

where m is the mass of the pendulum, g  = 10 m/s2 is the constant gravitational acceleration, h = 0.05 is the vertical it travels, v is the pendulum velocity at the bottom, which we are trying to solve for.

The m on both sides of the equation cancel out

v^2 = 2gh = 2*10*0.05 = 1

v = \sqrt{1} = 1 m/s

so D is the correct answer

5 0
3 years ago
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