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brilliants [131]
3 years ago
7

A mineral that has _______ can be split fairly easily along planes with weak atomic attraction.

Physics
2 answers:
scoundrel [369]3 years ago
6 0
The answer would be b. cleavage 
Stells [14]3 years ago
6 0
<span> A mineral that has _______ can be split fairly easily along planes with weak atomic attraction. 
<span>     D. cleavage</span></span>
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As part of an interview for a summer job with the Coast Guard, you are asked to help determine the search area for two sunken sh
marshall27 [118]

Answer:

The resultant velocity is  v_t=10 knots

Explanation:

Apply the law of conservation of momentum

     M_L *v_L + M_f * V_f = (M_L + M_f) v_t

Where M_L is the mass of the Luxury Liner = 40,000 ton

            v_L is the velocity of Luxury Liner = 20 knots due west

            M_f mass of freighter = 60,000

           v_f is the velocity of freighter = 10 knots due north

Apply the law of conservation of momentum toward the the west direction

         v_f = 0 \ knots

So the equation would be

              M_L *v_L = (M_L + M_f) v_t

Substituting values

            40000*20 = (40000+ 60000)v_t_w

Where v_t_w the final velocity due west

Making v_t_w the subject

          v_t_w = \frac{40,000* 20}{(40000 + 60000)}

                = 8 \ knots

Apply the law of conservation of momentum toward the the north direction          

          v_L = 0 \ knots

So the equation would be

           M_f *v_f = (M_L + M_f) v_t_n

Where v_t_n the final velocity due north

     Making v_t_n the subject

          v_t_n = \frac{60,000* 10}{(40000 + 60000)}

                = 6 \ knots

The resultant velocity is

       v_t = \sqrt{v_t_w^2 + v_t_n^2}

            = \sqrt{8^2 +6^2}

           v_t=10 knots

8 0
3 years ago
A 3.00 kg object is fastened to a light spring, with the intervening cord passing over a pulley. The pulley is frictionless, and
finlep [7]

Answer:

Part a)

k = 588.6 N/m

Part b)

v = 0.7 m/s

Explanation:

As we know that initially block is at rest

now if block is released from rest then it will go down by 10 cm and again comes to rest

so here we have

Part a)

Work done by gravity + work done by spring force = change in kinetic energy

W_g + W_{spring} = 0 - 0

mg(0.10) + \frac{1}{2}k(0^2 - 0.10^2) = 0

3(9.81)(0.10) - \frac{1}{2}k(0.10)^2 = 0

k = 588.6 N/m

Part b)

Now when spring is stretch by x = 5 cm then the speed of the block is given as

mgx' + \frac{1}{2}k(0^2 - x'^2) = \frac{1}{2}mv^2 - 0

here we have

x' = 0.05 m

3(9.81)(0.05) - \frac{1}{2}(588.6)(0 - 0.05^2) = \frac{1}{2}(3) v^2

1.4715 - 0.736 = 1.5 v^2

v = 0.7 m/s

3 0
3 years ago
assume that the brakes in your car create a constant deceleration regardless of how fast you are going. if you double your drivi
Monica [59]
If that happens to your car and you double the speed then it will take the car longer to come to a complete stop
5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Divers found two substances on the bottom of the ocean. At room temperature, both substances are liquid. Scientists then transfe
shtirl [24]

They have different melting points

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A planet is discovered orbiting around a star in the galaxy Andromeda at the same distance from the star as Earth is from the Su
aniked [119]

Answer:

The planet´s orbital period will be one-half Earth´s orbital period.

Explanation:

The planet in orbit, is subject to the attractive force from the sun, which is given by the Newton´s Universal Law of Gravitation.

At the same time, this force, is the same centripetal force, that keeps the planet in orbit (assuming to be circular), so we can put the following equation:

Fg = Fc ⇒ G*mp*ms / r² = mp*ω²*r

As we know to find out the orbital period, as it is the time needed to give a complete revolution around the sun, we can say this:

ω = 2*π / T (rad/sec), so replacing this in the expression above, we get:

Fg = Fc ⇒   G*mp*ms / r² = mp*(2*π/T)²*r

Solving for T²:

T² = (2*π)²*r³ / G*ms (1)

For the planet orbiting the sun in Andromeda, we have:

Ta² = (2*π)*r³ / G*4*ms (2)

As the radius of the orbit (distance to the sun) is the same for both planets, we can simplify it in the expression, so, if we divide both sides in (1) and (2), simplifying common terms, we finally get:

(Te / Ta)² =  4  ⇒ Te / Ta = 2 ⇒ Ta = Te/2

So, The planet's orbital period will be one-half Earth's orbital period.

7 0
3 years ago
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