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jek_recluse [69]
3 years ago
7

A leaky faucet drips once each second. at this rate, it takes 1 hour to fill a 1-liter graduated cylinder to the 200-cm3 mark. w

hat unit conversion do you need in order to calculate the average volume of a single drop in cm3?
Physics
1 answer:
UNO [17]3 years ago
8 0
Define
v = volume of a drop per second, cm³/s

The time taken to fill 200 cm³ is 1 hour.
Let V = 200 cm³, the filled volume.
Let t = 1 h = 3600 s, the time required to fill the volume.

Therefore,
\frac{200 \,  cm^{3}}{v \, cm^{3}/s}  = 3600 \, s \\ v =  \frac{200}{3600} =0.0556 \, cm^{3}

The average volume of a single drop is approximately 0.0556 cm³.

Answer: 0.0556 cm³

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A small block of mass M = 0.10 kg is released from rest at point 1 at a height H = 1.8 m above the bottom of a track, as shown i
Ede4ka [16]

Answer:

D

Explanation:

A) is not correct, because the gravitation potential energy will depend on the height the block is located at. It will be calculated with the formula:

U=mgh.

If we take the ground as a zero height reference, then on point 2 the potential energy will be:

U_{2} = 0.10kg(9.81 m/s^{2})(0.6m)

U_{2}=0.59 J

While on point 3, the potential energy will be greater.

U_{3}=0.10kg(9.81 m/s^{2})(1.2m)

U_{3}=1.18 J

B) is not the right answer because the kinetic energy will vary with the height the block is located at in the fact that the energy is conserved (this is if we don't take friction into account or air resistance) so in this case:

U_{2}+K_{2}= U_{3}+K_{3}

We already know the potential energy at point 2. We can calculate the kinetic energy at point 3 like this:

K_{3} =\frac{1}{2}mv_{3}^{2}

K_{3} =\frac{1}{2}(0.10kg)(2.5 m/s)^{2}

K_{3} =0.31 J

So the kinetic energy at point 2 is given by the equation:

K_{2}  =U_{3}-U_{2}+K_{3}

so:

K_{2} = (1.18J)-(0.59J)+0.31J

K_{2} =0.9J

As you may see the kinetic energy at point 2 is greater than the kinetic energy at point 3.

C) Is not correct because according to the first law of thermodinamics, energy is not lost, only transformed. So, since we are not taking into account friction or any other kind of loss, then we can say that the amount of mechanical energy at point 1 is exactly the same as the mechanical energy at point 3.

D) Because of what we talked about on part C, this will be the true situation, because the mechanical energy of the block will be the same no matter theh point you measure it at.

7 0
3 years ago
It is determined that a certain light wave has a wavelength of 3.012 x 10-12 m. The light travels at 2.99 x 108 m/s. What is the
gayaneshka [121]

Answer:

id.k

Explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
2. Air at a temperature of 20 ºC passes through a pipe with a constant velocity of 40 m/s. The pipe goes through a heat exchange
frozen [14]

Answer:

a) Q = 1436 kW

b) P ≈ 776 kW

Explanation:

Let's begin by listing out the given parameters:

T1 = 20 °C, u = 40 m/s, T2 = 820 °C, P = 4.3 kW, m = 2.5 kg/s, T3 = 510 °C, V1 = 40 m/s,

V2 = 40 m/s, V3 = 55 m/s, ṁ = 2.5 kg/s

To solve the question, we make this assumption that the size of the pipe is constant

a) No change in velocity implies that heat added is isochoric

Q = m * C * ΔT

Cv of air at 300 K(≈20 °C) = 0.718

Q = 2.5 * 0.718 * (820 − 20)

Q = 1436 kW

b) P = ṁ * Cp * ΔT + ṁ * (V2² - V3²) ÷ 2000] - Ql

V2² - V3² = 55² - 40² = 1425

ΔT = T2 - T3 = 820 - 510 = 310 °C

Cp of air at 300 K(≠20 °C) = 1.005 kJ/kgK

Ql = 4.3 kW

P = 2.5 * (1.005 * 310) + 2.5 * (1425 ÷ 2000) - 4.3

P = 778.875 + 1.78125 - 4.3 = 776.35625

P ≈ 776 kW

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4 years ago
Todo sistema heterogêneo é bifásico
strojnjashka [21]
I don't understand the language.....
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3 years ago
Why do waves slow down?
svet-max [94.6K]

Answer:

because of moon  

Explanation:

7 0
3 years ago
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