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3 years ago

Explain Why a flying aeroplane has more Kinetic Energy than a flying insect?

Physics

1 answer:

Airida [17]3 years ago

5 0

Answer:

Why do insects fly so high?

Because the angle of attack is so high, a lot of momentum is transferred downward into the flow. These two features create a large amount of lift force as well as some additional drag. The important feature, however, is the lift.

Why an Aeroplane flying has kinetic

A flying aeroplane has potential energy has it flies above the ground level. And since the aeroplane is flying motion is associated with it and thus possesses kinetic energy. Hence a flying aeroplane has both potential and kinetic energ

Explanation:

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Which of the following numbers is correctly represented by 4 x 10-7? 0.0000004 40,000,000 0.000004

creativ13 [48]

0.0000004. since it is 10^-7 (note the negative), you would move thedecimal point 7 places to the left.

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3 years ago

En un viaje ida y vuelta de 10 kilómetros, el desplazamiento y la distancia recorrida son respectivamente.

Nataly [62]

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Explanation:

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3 years ago

a net force of 219 N is exterted on a rock. the rock has an acceleration of 3m/s^2 due to this force. what is the mass of the ro

Sonbull [250]

Answer:

Explanation:

The mass of the object can be found by using the formula

$m = \frac{f}{a} \\$

f is the force

a is the acceleration

From the question we have

$m = \frac{219}{3} \\$

We have the final answer as

Hope this helps you

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3 years ago

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3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Normalize the equations

tatyana61 [14]

Answer:

Solution is in explanation

Explanation:

part a)

For normalization we have

$\int_{0}^{\infty }f(x)dx=1\\\\\therefore \int_{0}^{\infty }ae^{-kx}dx=1\\\\\Rightarrow a\int_{0}^{\infty }e^{-kx}dx=1\\\\\frac{a}{-k}[\frac{1}{e^{kx}}]_{0}^{\infty }=1\\\\\frac{a}{-k}[0-1]=1\\\\\therefore a=k$

Part b)

$\int_{0}^{L }f(x)dx=1\\\\\therefore Re(\int_{0}^{L }ae^{-ikx}dx)=1\\\\\Rightarrow Re(a\int_{0}^{L }e^{-ikx}dx)=1\\\\\therefore Re(\frac{a}{-ik}[\frac{1}{e^{ikx}}]_{0}^{L})=1\\\\\Rightarrow Re(\frac{a}{-ik}(e^{-ikL}-1))=1\\\\\frac{a}{k}Re(\frac{1}{-i}(cos(-kL)+isin(-kL)-1))=1$

$\frac{a}{k}Re(\frac{1}{-i}(cos(-kL)+isin(-kL)-1))=1\\\\\frac{a}{k}Re(icos(-kL)+sin(kL)+\frac{1}{i})=1\\\\\frac{a}{k}sin(kL)=1\\\\a=\frac{k}{sin(kL)}$

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4 years ago