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dimaraw [331]
3 years ago
13

A figure shows a vertically moving block on the end of a cord. The graph next to the figure gives the vertical velocity componen

t vy as a function of time to. The block's mass is 5.00kg. What is the tension in the cord?
Physics
1 answer:
Sergio [31]3 years ago
3 0
It should be 2/9/10 in functional form
You might be interested in
Given the isotope 2Fes, which has an actual mass of 55.934939 u: a) b) Determine the mass defect of the nucleus in atomic mass u
SSSSS [86.1K]

Answer:

Mass defect of each iron-56 nuclei:

The binding energy per nucleon of Iron-56 is approximately 8.6 MeV.

Explanation:

According to the physics constants table on Chemistry Libretexts:

  • Proton rest mass: \rm 1.0072765\;amu;
  • Neutron rest mass: \rm 1.0086649\; amu.
  • Speed of light in vacuum: \rm 2.99792458\times 10^{8}\;m\cdot s^{-1}.
  • Charge on an electron: \rm 1.6021765\times 10^{-19}\;C.

<h3>a)</h3>

The mass defect of a nucleus is equal to the sum of the mass of its parts (protons and, in most cases, neutrons) minus the mass of the nucleus.

The atomic number of iron is 26. There are 26 protons in each iron-56 nucleus. The mass number 56 indicates that there are 56 nucleons (neutrons and protons) in each iron-56 nucleus. The other 56 - 26 = 30 particles are neutrons.

The mass of protons and neutrons in each iron-56 nucleus will be:

\rm 26 \times 1.0072765 + 30 \times 1.0086649 = 56.464736\;amu.

According to this question, the mass of an iron-56 nucleus is equal to 55.934939 amu. The mass defect will be

\rm 56.464736 - 55.934939 = 0.514197\;amu.

<h3>b)</h3>

By the mass-energy equivalence,

E = m\cdot c^{2}.

Refer to this equation, the speed of light in vacuum c^{2} is the conversion factor between mass m and energy E. The value of c is usually given only in SI units \rm m\cdot s^{-1}. Accordingly, the value of c^{2} will be in the SI unit \rm m^{2}\cdot s^{-2} = J\cdot kg^{-1}.

Convert million electron-volts to joules.

One electron-volt is equal to the electrical work done moving an electron across a potential difference of one volt.  

\begin{aligned}\rm 1 MeV&= \rm 10^{6}\; eV\\ &= \rm (10^{6}\times 1.6021765\times 10^{-19}\;C)\times 1\; V\\&=\rm 1.6021765\times 10^{-19}\;J\end{aligned}.

Convert the unit of c^{2} from \rm m^{2}\cdot s^{-2} = J\cdot kg^{-1} to the desired \rm MeV \cdot amu^{-1}:

\begin{aligned}c^{2} &= \rm {\left(2.99792458\times 10^{8}\;m\cdot s^{-1}\right)}^{2}\\&=\rm 8.987551787\times 10^{16}\; m^{2}\cdot s^{-2}\\ &= \rm 8.987551787\times 10^{16}\; J\cdot kg^{-1}\\&= \rm 8.987551787\times 10^{16}\; J\cdot kg^{-1}\times \frac{1\;MeV}{1.6021765\times 10^{-13}\;J}\times \frac{1\times 10^{-3}\;kg}{6.022142\times 10^{23}\;amu}\\&\approx \rm 931.602164\;MeV\cdot amu^{-1}\end{aligned}.

Total binding energy in each iron-56 nucleus:

\begin{aligned}E &= m\cdot c^{2}\\&= \rm 0.514197\;amu \times 9.31602164\;MeV\cdot amu^{-1} \\&=\rm 479.027038\; MeV \end{aligned}.

Again, the mass number 56 indicates that there are 56 nucleons in each iron-56 nucleus. The binding energy per nucleon of iron-56 \mathrm{^{56}Fe} will be:

\displaystyle \rm \frac{479.027038\; MeV}{56} \approx 8.6\; MeV.

6 0
3 years ago
The emf induced in a coil that is rotating in a magnetic field will be at a maximum at which moment?
adelina 88 [10]
TLDR: It will reach a maximum when the angle between the area vector and the magnetic field vector are perpendicular to one another.

This is an example that requires you to investigate the properties that occur in electric generators; for example, hydroelectric dams produce electricity by forcing a coil to rotate in the presence of a magnetic field, generating a current.

To solve this, we need to understand the principles of electromotive forces and Lenz’ Law; changing the magnetic field conditions around anything with this potential causes an induced current in the wire that resists this change. This principle is known as Lenz’ Law, and can be described using equations that are specific to certain situations. For this, we need the two that are useful here:

e = -N•dI/dt; dI = ABcos(theta)

where “e” describes the electromotive force, “N” describes the number of loops in the coil, “dI” describes the change in magnetic flux, “dt” describes the change in time, “A” describes the area vector of the coil (this points perpendicular to the loops, intersecting it in open space), “B” describes the magnetic field vector, and theta describes the angle between the area and mag vectors.

Because the number of loops remains constant and the speed of the coils rotation isn’t up for us to decide, the only thing that can increase or decrease the emf is the change in magnetic flux, represented by ABcos(theta). The magnetic field and the size of the loop are also constant, so all we can control is the angle between the two. To generate the largest emf, we need cos(theta) to be as large as possible. To do this, we can search a graph of cos(theta) for the highest point. This occurs when theta equals 90 degrees, or a right angle. Therefore, the electromotive potential will reach a maximum when the angle between the area vector and the magnetic field vector are perpendicular to one another.

Hope this helps!
6 0
3 years ago
A man jogs at a speed of 1.6 m/s. His dog
FromTheMoon [43]
I believe it is
1.6x=2.7(x-1.8)
1.1x=2.7*1.8
x~4.4
4.4*1.6
~7.1m
5 0
3 years ago
Why can't there be a number lower than absolute zero
nexus9112 [7]

Absolute zero is not about numbers.  It's about temperature, and the
motion of molecules in gases. 

You know that the temperature we feel with our skin is the result of the
average speed of all the tiny molecules zipping around or vibrating in
the solid, liquid, or gas.

The faster they're all moving, the warmer the substance feels to us. 
The slower they're all moving, the cooler the substance feels to us.

When molecules slow down to zero and lose all of their kinetic energy,
that temperature is what we call 'absolute zero' ... if they're not moving
at all, then they can't move any slower.

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
in a certain experiment, a radio transmitter emits sinusoidal electromagnetic waves of frequency 105.0 mhz in opposite direction
Romashka [77]

As a result, the hollow is 10.90 meters long and the distance between the nodal planes is 1.36 meters.

<h3>Explain electromagnetic waves.</h3>

The oscillations between an electric field and a magnetic field produce waves known as electromagnetic waves, or EM waves.

By definition, we understand that the frequency equals,

f = c/λ

where,

λ = wavelength

c= Speed of light

λ = 2L / n

While the wavelength is equal to,

Where,

L = Length

n = Number of antinodes/nodes

PART A) We know that the first component's wavelength is 110 MHz, so

λ = c/ f

λ = 3*10^8 / 11*10^6

λ = 1.36m

Therefore the distance between the nodal planes is 1.36m

PART B) For this part we need to find the Length through the number of nodes (8) and the wavelength, that is,

λ` = 2l /n

L = 8*2.72/ 2

L = 10.90m

Therefore the length of the cavity is 10.90m.

To know more about electromagnetic waves visit:-

brainly.com/question/3101711

#SPJ4

7 0
1 year ago
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