All categories

3 years ago

If two objects move farther apart from one another, the force of gravity will

Physics

2 answers:

Readme [11.4K]3 years ago

6 0

the answer is b

decrease

jonny [76]3 years ago

4 0

Gravity is universal. This force of gravitational attraction is directly dependent upon the masses of both objects and inversely proportional to the square of the distance that separates their centers. This means that as you move away from an object the gravitational force decreases.

You might be interested in

If the angular velocity of the pully is -8.4rad/s at a given time, and its anglar acceleration is -2.8rad/s2, what is the angula

snow_lady [41]

Here we know that

$\omega_i = - 8.4 rad/s$

$\alpha = - 2.8 rad/s^2$

$t = 1.5 s$

now from kinematics we have

$\omega_f = \omega_i + \alpha t$

now from above all values we have

$\omega_f = (-8.4 rad/s) + (-2.8 rad/s^2)(1.5)$

$\omega_f = -8.4 + (-4.2)$

$\omega_f = -12.6 rad/s$

so final angular speed is -12.6 rad/s

6 0

3 years ago

Use Newton's second law of motion and a free-body diagram to...

timurjin [86]

Using the formula F = m*a. where F is the force, m is the mass and a is the acceleration you can use it for each. As long as there are no other forces towards the body in both cases :
F = m*a
F = 50*3
F = 150 N

7 0

3 years ago

A golf ball (m = 59.2 g) is struck a blow that makes an angle of 50.5 ◦ with the horizontal. The drive lands 130 m away on a fla

fomenos

Answer:

The force is calculated as 338.66 N

Explanation:

We know that force is given by

$\overrightarrow{F}=\frac{d\overrightarrow{p}}{dt}=\frac{m(v_{f}-v_{o})}{\Delta t}$

We know that range of a projectile is given by

$R=\frac{v_{o}^{2}sin(2\theta )}{g}$

it is given that R=130 m applying values in the above equation we get

$R=\frac{v_{o}^{2}sin(2\theta )}{g}\\\\v_{0}=\sqrt{\frac{Rg}{sin(2\theta )}}\\\\\therefore v_{o}=\sqrt{\frac{130\times 9.81}{sin(2\times 50.5_{o}} )}\\\\v_{o}=36.04m/s$

Thus the force is obtained as

$\overrightarrow{F}=\frac{d\overrightarrow{p}}{dt}=\frac{59.2\times 10^{}-3(36.04-0)}{6.3\times 10^{-3}}$

Thus force equals $F=338.66N$

4 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

What causes interstellar dust and gas to start to contract and form a protostar?

oee [108]

I’m pretty sure the answer is 3

6 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

A metal can become magnetic if the outermost electrons

Marizza181 [45]

Answer:

The magnetic moment of a system measures the strength and the direction of its magnetism. The term itself usually refers to the magnetic dipole moment. Anything that is magnetic, like a bar magnet or a loop of electric current, has a magnetic moment. A magnetic moment is a vector quantity, with a magnitude and a direction. An electron has an electron magnetic dipole moment, generated by the electron's intrinsic spin property, making it an electric charge in motion. There are many different magnetic behavior including paramagnetism, diamagnetism, and ferromagnetism.

An interesting characteristic of transition metals is their ability to form magnets. Metal complexes that have unpaired electrons are magnetic. Since the last electrons reside in the d orbitals, this magnetism must be due to having unpaired d electrons. The spin of a single electron is denoted by the quantum number $m_s$ as +(1/2) or –(1/2). This spin is negated when the electron is paired with another, but creates a weak magnetic field when the electron is unpaired. More unpaired electrons increase the paramagnetic effects. The electron configuration of a transition metal (d-block) changes in a coordination compound; this is due to the repulsive forces between electrons in the ligands and electrons in the compound. Depending on the strength of the ligand, the compound may be paramagnetic or diamagnetic.Explanation:

4 0

3 years ago