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elena-14-01-66 [18.8K]
3 years ago
13

How many six digit number can be made from the digits 1, 1, 1, 2, 2, 3?

Mathematics
1 answer:
yulyashka [42]3 years ago
3 0
The permutation of all digits is 6!, but we don't differentiate the same digits, so we divide it by the number of permutations of 1's (3!) and 2's (2!)

\dfrac{6!}{3!2!}=\dfrac{4\cdot5\cdot6}{2}=60

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Find the second term of the arithmetic series described by a1=0.25, an=4, and sn=8.5 answer: a2=
Elis [28]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

an=4=a1+(n-1)*d=0.25+(n-1)*d

so (n-1)*d=4-0.25=3.75

Sn=a1*n+(n-1)*d

a1*n+3.75=8.5

0.25*n+3.75=8.5

-3.75                -3.75

0.25*n=8.5-3.75=4.75

n=4.75:0.25

n=19

so a19=a1+(19-1)*d=4

          0.25+18*d=4

           -0.25           -0.25

         18*d=3.75

           d=3.75/18

            d=0.208

so  a2=a1+0.208=0.25+0.208=0.458

a2=0.458

8 0
3 years ago
[100 point question answer asap]find the areas of the trapezoids
bazaltina [42]

Answer:

7.5

Step-by-step explanation:

You have two triangles with areas of 1.5 and 3 as well as a rectangle with an area of 3

5 0
3 years ago
What is 25 divided by 225
daser333 [38]
0.097- or it could be 0.10 if you round it
5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
<img src="https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Csqrt%7Bx%7D%20%2B1%3D3%5C%5C" id="TexFormula1" title="\sqrt{x} +1=3\\" alt="\sqrt{x} +1=3\\
Eduardwww [97]

Answer:

x = 4

Step-by-step explanation:

√x + 1 = 3

√x = 3 - 1

√x = 2

(√x)² = (2)²

x = 4

4 0
3 years ago
A couple intends to have two children, and suppose that approximately 52% of births are male and 48% are female.
Pachacha [2.7K]

a) Probability of both being males is 27%

b) Probability of both being females is 23%

c) Probability of having exactly one male and one female is 50%

Step-by-step explanation:

a)

The probability that the birth is a male can be written as

p(m) = 0.52 (which corresponds to 52%)

While the probability that the birth is a female can be written as

p(f) = 0.48 (which corresponds to 48%)

Here we want to calculate the probability that over  2 births, both are male. Since the two births are two independent events (the probability of the 2nd to be a male  does not depend on the fact that the 1st one is a male), then the probability of both being males is given by the product of the individual probabilities:

p(mm)=p(m)\cdot p(m)

And substituting, we find

p(mm)=0.52\cdot 0.52 = 0.27

So, 27%.

b)

In this case, we want to find the probability that both children are female, so the probability

p(ff)

As in the previous case, the probability of the 2nd child to be a female is independent from whether the 1st one is a male or a female: therefore, we can apply the rule for independent events, and this means that the probability that both children are females is the product of the individual probability of a child being a female:

p(ff)=p(f)\cdot p(f)

And substituting

p(f)=0.48

We find:

p(ff)=0.48\cdot 0.48=0.23

Which means 23%.

c)

In this case, we want to find the probability they have exactly one male and exactly one female child. This is given by the sum of two probabilities:

- The probability that 1st child is a male and 2nd child is a female, namely p(mf)

- The probability that 1st child is a female and 2nd child is a male, namely p(fm)

So, this probability is

p(mf Ufm)=p(mf)+p(fm)

We have:

p(mf)=p(m)\cdot p(f)=0.52\cdot 0.48=0.25

p(fm)=p(f)\cdot p(m)=0.48\cdot 0.52=0.25

Therefore, this probability is

p(mfUfm)=0.25+0.25=0.50

So, 50%.

Learn more about probabilities:

brainly.com/question/5751004

brainly.com/question/6649771

brainly.com/question/8799684

brainly.com/question/7888686

#LearnwithBrainly

5 0
3 years ago
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