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8_murik_8 [283]
4 years ago
14

A wave is traveling through a medium ad it travels it displaces particles of matter in the same direction as the wave is traveli

ng this type of wave is a
Physics
2 answers:
Tamiku [17]4 years ago
7 0
I think it's longitudinal wave because the particles move parallel to the direction that the wave is traveling. 
LUCKY_DIMON [66]4 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Longitudinal wave

Explanation:

Longitudinal wave: this wave produces vibrations in the direction it moves, that is, it pushes the particles in the medium towards their direction of propagation.

Unlike another type of wave that is the transverse wave, which produces  vibration in a direction perpendicular to its direction of propagation.

So the wave mentioned in the statement is a longitudinal wave because the displacement of the particles is in the direction of the wave.

An example of this type of wave are sound waves, which are transmitted by vibrations in the particles of the medium (like air) in their direction of the movement of the wave.

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three condensers are connected in series across a 150 volt supply. The voltages across them are 40,50 and 60 volts respectively,
ioda

Explanation:

Given that,

The voltages across them are 40,50 and 60 volts respectively, and the charge on each condenser is 6×10⁻⁸ C.

(a) Capacitance of capacitor 1,

C_1=\dfrac{Q}{V_1}\\\\C_1=\dfrac{6\times 10^{-8}}{40}\\\\C_1=1.5\times 10^{-9}\ F\\\\C_1=1.5\ nF

Capacitance of capacitor 2,

C_2=\dfrac{Q}{V_2}\\\\C_2=\dfrac{6\times 10^{-8}}{50}\\\\C_2=1.2\times 10^{-9}\ F\\\\C_2=1.2\ nF

Capacitance of capacitor 3,

C_3=\dfrac{Q}{V_3}\\\\C_3=\dfrac{6\times 10^{-8}}{60}\\\\C_3=1\times 10^{-9}\ F\\\\C_3=1\ nF

(b) The equivalent capacitance in series combination is :

\dfrac{1}{C}=\dfrac{1}{C_1}+\dfrac{1}{C_2}+\dfrac{1}{C_3}\\\\\dfrac{1}{C}=\dfrac{1}{1.5}+\dfrac{1}{1.2}+\dfrac{1}{1}\\\\C=0.4\ nF

Hence, this is the required solution.

5 0
3 years ago
If it takes you 20 joules of work to move a couch 10 meters in 10 seconds, what is the power?
Debora [2.8K]

Answer:

Power = 2 j/s

Explanation:

Power = Work / Time

= 20/10

= 2 j/s

4 0
3 years ago
A stationary boat in the ocean is experiencing waves from a storm. the waves move at 56 km/h and have a wavelength of 160 m, bot
Lera25 [3.4K]
The wavelength \lambda of the wave is 160 m, and this is the distance between two consecutive crests. The boat is located at a crest of the wave, this means that the first trough is located 80 meters from the boat (because the distance between a crest and a trough is half the wavelength).

The speed of the wave is 
v=56 km/h = 15.6 m/s
so the time the boat takes to reach the first trough is
t= \frac{S}{v} = \frac{80 m}{15.6 m/s}=5.1 s
5 0
4 years ago
Explain why average velocity in one dimension can be positive or negative.
Softa [21]
Imagine an object is moving in one dimension on a number line, and for this we'll say that the numbers on the line are a metre apart. If the object moves from 2 m to 7 m, the change in position is 7-2=+5 metres. But if the object moves back from 7 m to 2 m, the change in position is 2-7=-5 metres. since velocity =  \frac{change in position}{time}, and time is always positive, velocity will be positive in one direction and negative in the other direction.
3 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A child drops a ball from a window. The ball strikes the ground in 3.0 seconds. What is the velocity of the ball the instant bef
inessss [21]

Answer:

29.396988 m/s

Explanation:

Really, it depends on where the child is when he drops the ball - e.g., which planet he is on, and his distance from the center of that planet.

I'll assume that the child is on Earth at sea level at the equator, so that his distance from the geocenter is 6378000 meters.

The acceleration, g, is found from

g = GM/r²

G = 6.6743e-11 m³ kg⁻¹ sec⁻²

M = 5.9724e+24 kg

r = 6.378e+6 m

g = 9.799086 m sec⁻²

An approximate answer is found from an equation from constant acceleration kinematics:

v = gt

t = 3.0 sec

v = 29.397259 m/s

Now, the above method is an approximation that makes the technically incorrect assumption that the acceleration of gravity is a constant throughout the entire fall. You get away with it because the drop is very short. In another situation, it might not be. So it would be nice to develop a more accurate method that does not assume constant gravitational acceleration. For that, we begin with the Vis Viva equation:

v = √[GM(2/r − 1/a)]

Here,

a = the semimajor axis of a plunge orbit, which is equal to half of the apoapsis distance of 6378000+h, where

h = the altitude from which the ball is dropped

We can (using some math) develop the following equation:

t − t₀ = √[d/(2GM)] { √(rd−r²) + d arctan √(d/r−1) }

t − t₀ = 3 sec

r = 6378000 meters

d = r + h

Using an iterative method (e.g. Newton's or Danby's), we can determine that the altitude,

h = 44.0954 meters

So,

d = 6378044.09538 meters

a = d/2 = 3189022.04769 meters

Now we can calculate that

v = 29.396988 m/s

This is the more nearly correct answer because it takes into account the variability of the gravitational acceleration during the fall.

5 0
3 years ago
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