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Anika [276]
3 years ago
15

Write an expression equivalent to 8(3/4x-1/4)-6(12-x) using the fewest possible terms.

Mathematics
1 answer:
Harrizon [31]3 years ago
3 0
Use distributive property: (24/4x-8/4)-(72-6x)
Simplify: 6x-2-72+6x
Simplify: 12x-74

12x-74
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Solve the system of linear equations using multiplication.
Anna71 [15]

Answer:

(8,-1)

Step-by-step explanation:

The given system is:

3x+3y=21

6x+12y=36

Since I prefer to use smaller numbers I'm going to divide both sides of the first equation by 3 and both sides of the equation equation by 6.

This gives me the system:

x+y=7

x+2y=6

We could solve the first equation for x and replace the second x with that.

Let's do that.

x+y=7

Subtract y on both sides:

x=7-y

So we are replacing the second x in the second equation with (7-y) which gives us:

(7-y)+2y=6

7-y+2y=6

7+y=6

y=6-7

y=-1

Now recall the first equation we arranged so that x was the subject. I'm referring to x=7-y.

We can now find x given that y=-1 using the equation x=7-y.

Let's do that.

x=7-y with y=-1:

x=7-(-1)

x=7+1

x=8

So the solution is (8,-1).

We can check this point by plugging it into both equations.

If both equations render true for that point, then we have verify the solution.

Let's try it.

3x+3y=21 with (x,y)=(8,-1):

3(8)+3(-1)=21

24+(-3)=21

21=21 is a true equation so the "solution" looks promising still.

6x+12y=36 with (x,y)=(8,-1):

6(8)+12(-1)=36

48+(-12)=36

36=36 is also true so the solution has been verified since both equations render true for that point.

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Graphing linear equations 2x+4y=-8
d1i1m1o1n [39]
The easiest way to graph this equation is using the x and y intercepts. Plug zero in for x to solve for y, then plug zero in got y to solve for x.

8 0
3 years ago
What is the equation of the line?
ziro4ka [17]

Answer: x=0

Step-by-step explanation:

The line has an undefined slope and has infinitely many solutions as it passes through the y-axis

Therefore the equation of the line is x=0

7 0
2 years ago
A study was conducted to determine whether magnets were effective in treating pain. The values represent measurements of pain us
Zanzabum

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Hello!

The objective of the study is to determine whether the magnets are effective in treating pain. For these two independent groups of individuals with equal affections were randomly sampled, one was treated with magnets and the other group of individuals, call it control group, was treated with a placebo treatment.

The information for both samples is:

X₁: pain measurement using a visual analog scale after the individual received magnet treatments.

X₁~N(μ₁;σ₁²)

n₁= 20

X[bar]₁= 0.46

S₁= 0.93

X₂: pain measurement using a visual analog scale of an individual of the control groups.

X₂~N(μ₂;σ₂²)

n₂= 20

X[bar]₂= 0.41

S₂= 1.26

The claim is that the pain reductions of the control group have more variation than the pain reductions of the target group. If it's so then we could suspect that the population variance of the control group, σ₂², will be greater than the population variance of the magnet group, σ₁².

To test the relationship between these two population variances you have to conduct a variance ratio test using the Snedecors F statistic.

The hypotheses are:

H₀: σ₂² ≤ σ₁²

H₁: σ₂² > σ₁²

α: 0.05

F= (\frac{S_2^2}{S_1^2}) * (\frac{Sigma_2^2}{Sigma_1^2} )~~ F_{(n_2-1);(n_1-1)}

This hypothesis test is one-tailed to the right, there is only one critical value:

F_{(n_2-1);(n_1-1); 1 - \alpha } = F_{19;19; 0.95}= 2.17

The decision rule for the test is:

If F_{H_0} ≥ 2.17, then the decision is to reject the null hypothesis.

If F_{H_0} < 2.17, then the decision is to not reject the null hypothesis.

F_{H_0}= \frac{S_2^2}{S_1^2}*\frac{Sigma_2^2}{Sigma_1^2}  = \frac{(1.26)^2}{(0.93)^2} * 1

F_{H_0} = 1.835 = 1.84

Since the calculated value of F is less than the critical value, the decision is to reject the null hypothesis. So using a 5% significance level the decision is to not reject the null hypothesis, you can conclude that the population variance of the pain reduction of the control group is less or equal than the population variance of the pain reduction on individuals treated with magnets.

I hope it helps!

3 0
3 years ago
2. What is the measure of angle AOE and angle EOD?<br><br> X+138<br><br> x + 48
horrorfan [7]

Answer:

AOE = 138, EOD = 48

Step-by-step explanation:

Since AD is the diameter of the circle and goes through the middle

angle AOE + angle EOD  = 180

Solving the equation (x + 138) + ( x+ 48) = 180

We get x = 0.

8 0
2 years ago
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