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alukav5142 [94]
3 years ago
8

A ball is ejected to the right with an unknown horizontal velocity from the top of a pillar that is 50 meters in height. At the

exact instant, a carriage moving on rails is also released to the right from the bottom of the pillar. Calculate the velocity with which the carriage should be released so that the ball falls in the carriage after the carriage has traveled a distance of 50 meters on the ground.
Physics
1 answer:
dimulka [17.4K]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

15.67 m/s

Explanation:

The ball has a projectile motion, with a horizontal uniform motion with constant speed and a vertical accelerated motion with constant acceleration g=9.8 m/s^2 downward.

Let's consider the vertical motion only first: the vertical distance covered by the ball, which is S=50 m, is given by

S=\frac{1}{2}gt^2

where t is the time of the fall. Substituting S=50 m and re-arranging the equation, we can find t:

t=\sqrt{\frac{2S}{g}}=\sqrt{\frac{2(50 m)}{9.8 m/s^2}}=3.19 s

Now we now that the ball must cover a distance of 50 meters horizontally during this time, in order to fall inside the carriage; therefore, the velocity of the carriage should be:

v=\frac{d}{t}=\frac{50 m}{3.19 s}=15.67 m/s

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mrs_skeptik [129]

Answer:

675 Pa.

Explanation:

F = 5+2cos(15t) kN

Area (a) = 8*10-3 m2

Now at t =4 sec

            F= 5+2cos(60)

             = 5+2*0.5

              = 6  kN

Now ,force efficiency is 90%.

Hence,the effectively transmitted force,

            Fe = 0.90*6

                = 5.4 kN

Hence,pressure is given as,

            P = Fe/a

                = 5.4*10^3/(8 *10^-3))

              P = 675 Pa....answer

6 0
4 years ago
Consider a basketball player spinning a ball on the tip of a finger. If a player performs 1.99 J of work to set the ball spinnin
scoundrel [369]

To solve this problem it is necessary to apply the concepts related to rotational kinetic energy, the definition of the moment of inertia for a sphere and the obtaining of the radius through the circumference. Mathematically kinetic energy can be given as:

KE= I\omega^2

Where,

I = Moment of inertia

\omega = Angular velocity

According to the information given we have that the radius is

\Phi= 2\pi r

0.749m = 2\pi r

r = 0.1192m

With the radius obtained we can calculate the moment of inertia which is

I = \frac{2}{3}mr^2

I = \frac{2}{3}(0.624)(0.1192)^2

I = 5.91*10^{-3} kg \cdot m^2

Finally, from the energy equation and rearranging the expression to obtain the angular velocity we have to

\omega = \sqrt{\frac{2KE}{I}}

\omega = \sqrt{\frac{2(1.99)}{5.91*10^{-3}}}

\omega = 25.95rad/s

Therefore the angular speed will the ball rotate is 25.95rad/s

8 0
3 years ago
A standing wave of the third overtone is induced in a stopped pipe, 3 m long. The speed of sound is 340 m/s. The number of antin
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Answer:

overtone- one over the first

n skips by twos

4 antinodes

500 Hz

Explanation: Hope this helps :)

7 0
2 years ago
A potential difference of 300 volts is applied to a 2.0-µf capacitor and an 8.0-µf capacitor connected in series. (a) What are t
zubka84 [21]

Answer:

a) Q1=Q2=480μC   V1=240V   V2=60V

b) Q1=96μC   Q2=384μC   V1=V2=48V

c) Q1=Q2=0C    V1=V2=0V

Explanation:

Let C1 = 2μC  and  C2=8μC

For part (a) of this problem, we know that charge in a series circuit, is the same in C1 and C2. Having this in mind, we can calculate equivalent capacitance first:

C=\frac{1}{\frac{1}{C1} +\frac{1}{C2} } = 1.6\mu C

Q_{T} = V_{T}*C_{T} = 480\mu C

V1 = \frac{Q1}{C1}=240V

V2 = \frac{Q2}{C2}=60V

For part (b), the capacitors are in parallel now. In this condition, the voltage is the same for both capacitors:

V1=V2   So,  \frac{Q1}{C1} = \frac{Q2}{C2}

Total charge is the same calculated for part (a), so:

\frac{Qt - Q2}{C1} = \frac{Q2}{C2}   Solving for Q2:

Q2 = 384μC    Q1 = 96μC.

Therefore:

V1=V2=48V

For part (c), both capacitors would discharge, since their total voltage of 300V would by applied to a wire (R=0Ω). There would flow a huge amount of current for a short period of time, and capacitors would be completely discharged. Q1=Q2=0C  V1=V2=0V

3 0
3 years ago
If one horsepower is equal to 746 watts, how much horsepower does a highly trained athlete generate by doing 340 joules of work
astraxan [27]

746 joules per second = 746 watts = 1 horsepower

340 joules per second = 340 watts = (340/746) = <em>0.456 horsepower</em>

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How long you do it doesn't matter.  

Just like 30 miles per hour doesn't change whether you do it for an hour or for 10 minutes.

6 0
4 years ago
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