3 years ago

Please help will mark brainliest (answer must be right)

1 answer:

const2013 [10]3 years ago

8 0

Answer: TRUE

Step-by-step explanation: This is true, because there is an infinite amount of real numbers in both, and they are both countably infinite (so these infinities are equal). Hope this helps!

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Answer:

D and E

UV and SV

∠U and ∠S

Step-by-step explanation:

yes

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diamong [38]

ANSWER

$x = - 2 \pm i$

EXPLANATION

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We rewrite the above equation to obtain;

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We divide through by 3 to obtain;

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We add half the coefficient of
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3 years ago

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