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MrMuchimi
3 years ago
6

Please help will mark brainliest (answer must be right)

Mathematics
1 answer:
const2013 [10]3 years ago
8 0

Answer: TRUE

Step-by-step explanation: This is true, because there is an infinite amount of real numbers in both, and they are both countably infinite (so these infinities are equal). Hope this helps!

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