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Shalnov [3]
3 years ago
8

When the displacement of a mass on a spring is 12 a the half of the amplitude, what fraction of the mechanical energy is kinetic

energy?
Physics
1 answer:
Sveta_85 [38]3 years ago
7 0
You know that when the displacement is equal to the amplitude (A), the velocity is zero, which implies that the kinetic energy (KE) is zeero, so the total mechanical energy (ME) is the potential energy (PE).

And you know that the potential energy, PE, is [ 1/2 ] k (x^2)

Then, use x = A, to calculate the PE in the point where ME = PE.

ME = PE = [1/2] k (A)^2.

At half of the amplitude, x = A/2 => PE = [ 1/2] k (A/2)^2

=> PE = [1/4] { [1/2]k(A)^2 } = .[1/4] ME

So, if PE is 1/4 of ME, KE is 3/4 of ME.

And the answer is 3/4


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Two concrete spans of a 380 m long bridge are
Mazyrski [523]

Answer:

4.163 m

Explanation:

Since the length of the bridge is

L = 380 m

And the bridge consists of 2 spans, the initial length of each span is

L_i = \frac{L}{2}=\frac{380}{2}=190 m

Due to the increase in temperature, the length of each span increases according to:

L_f = L_i(1+ \alpha \Delta T)

where

L_i = 190 m is the initial length of one span

\alpha =1.2\cdot 10^{-5} ^{\circ}C^{-1} is the temperature coefficient of thermal expansion

\Delta T=20^{\circ}C is the increase in temperature

Substituting,

L_f=(190)(1+(1.2\cdot 10^{-5})(20))=190.0456 m

By using Pythagorean's theorem, we can find by how much the height of each span rises due to this thermal expansion (in fact, the new length corresponds to the hypothenuse of a right triangle, in which the base is the original length of the spand, and the rise in heigth is the other side); so we find:

h=\sqrt{L_f^2-L_i^2}=\sqrt{(190.0456)^2-(190)^2}=4.163 m

4 0
3 years ago
Consider a balloon of mass 0.030kg being inflated with a gas of density 0.54kg/m. What will be the volume of the balloon when it
Nonamiya [84]

the weight of the balloon is .030 * 10 = 0.3 N

the weight of the gas of volume v is 0.54*10 N

The lifting force of a volume of v m³ of displaced air is 1.29v N

so, we need

1.29*10*v = 0.3 + 0.54*10*v

or

1.29v = 0.03+0.54v

7 0
1 year ago
HELP!!!! WILL MARK BRAINLIEST!!!! IF YOU LEAVE AN ANSWER EXPLAIN! THANKS
Travka [436]

Answer:

the answer is C

Explanation:

we know this because if you compare the graphs and look at the direction. it isn't always in the explanation or the few sentences they gave you at the top. also, look at the waves, you can see in Davids drawing that it is directly straight up, A and B do not represent that. A isn't even a valid answer. Notice also in A that the arrow is going in the completely different direction than in Davids drawing. B is also going a different direction even though it is only turned a little bit although if it was straight up like Davids drawing then it would most likely be a correct answer. C does have one arrow going a different direction but look at how it has two, showing in which if the waves were to turn then the arrow is still valid

7 0
2 years ago
An ice skater accelerates backward for 5.0 second to final speed of 12m/s. If the acceleration backward was at a a rate of 1.5m/
Lisa [10]

Answer:

Initial velocity, U = 4.5m/s

Explanation:

Given the following data;

Final velocity, v = 12m/s

Time, t = 5 seconds

Acceleration, a = 1.5m/s²

To find the initial velocity, we would use the first equation of motion.

V = U + at

Where;

V is the final velocity.

U is the initial velocity.

a is the acceleration.

t is the time measured in seconds.

Substituting into the equation, we have;

12 = U + 1.5*5

12 = U + 7.5

U = 12 - 7.5

Initial velocity, U = 4.5m/s

3 0
2 years ago
A circular 10-turn coil with a radius of 5.0 cm carries a current of 5 A. It lies in the xy plane in a uniform magnetic field =
Tju [1.3M]

Answer:

U = – 0.12J

Explanation:

Given N = 10 turns, I = 5A, r = 5×10-²m

B^ = 0.05 T iˆ+ 0.3 T kˆ

Magnitude of the magnetic field vector B = √(0.05²+0.3²) = 0.304T

Area = πr² = π(5×10-²)² = 7.85×10-³m²

Magnetic moment μ = NIA

μ = 10×5×7.85×10-³ = 0.3925Am²

U = -μ•B = –0.3925×0.304 = –0.12J

The sign is negative because the magnetic moment is aligned with the magnetic field.

3 0
3 years ago
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