<span>The correct
answer between all the choices given is the first choice or letter A, which is 0.45J. I am
hoping that this answer has satisfied your query and it will be able to help
you in your endeavor, and if you would like, feel free to ask another question.</span>
M1V1 + M2V2 = M1V1' + M2V2'
where:
M1 is the mass of the large marble = 0.05 kg
V1 is the initial velocity of the large marble = 0.6 m/sec
M2 is the mass of the small marble = 0.03 kg
V2 is the initial velocity of the small marble = 0 m/sec (marble is at rest)
V1' is the final velocity of the large marble = -0.2 m/sec
V2' is the final velocity of the small marble that we want to calculate
Substitute with the givens in the above equation to get V2' as follows:
M1V1 + M2V2 = M1V1' + M2V2'
(0.05)(0.6) + (0.03)(0) = (0.05)(-0.2) + 0.03V2'
0.03 = -0.01 + 0.03V2'
0.03V2' = 0.03+0.01 = 0.04
V2' = 0.04/0.03
V2' = 1.334 m/sec
Solution :
The angular acceleration,
is obtained from the equation of the
of rotational motion,
Thus,
![$\tau = F \times d$](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%24%5Ctau%20%3D%20F%20%5Ctimes%20d%24)
or ![$\tau = I \times \alpha$](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%24%5Ctau%20%3D%20I%20%5Ctimes%20%5Calpha%24)
where
is torque, F is force, d is moment arm distance, I is the moment of inertia
Thus, ![$\alpha=\frac{(F\times d)}{I}$](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%24%5Calpha%3D%5Cfrac%7B%28F%5Ctimes%20d%29%7D%7BI%7D%24)
Now if the force and the moment arm distance are constant, then the
That is when, F = d = constant, then
.
Thus, moment of inertia, I is proportional to mass of the bar.
The mass is less for the bar in case (1) in comparison with that with the bar in case (2) due to the holes that is made in the bar.
Therefore, the bar in case (1), has less moment of inertia and a greater angular acceleration.
D. Copper and Gold
Copper and gold are used a lot in electrical applications.
Air and wood are insulators and glass is also kinda bad...