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Crazy boy [7]
3 years ago
10

Electromagnetic waves are produced when _____.

Physics
2 answers:
GuDViN [60]3 years ago
8 0

Answer: A

Explanation: when an electric charge accelerates it gains kinetic energy which is then expelled as radiation due to its vibration or acceleration

Tju [1.3M]3 years ago
6 0

Answer: The correct answer is a.

Explanation:

Electromagnetic wave is a wave in which the magnetic field and the electric field are perpendicular to each other.

Both fields are directed in the direction of the propagation of the electromagnetic wave. It travels with the speed of the light.

The motion of the electric field produces both electric field and the magnetic field.

The electromagnetic waves are produced when an electric charge vibrates or accelerates.

Therefore, the correct option is (a).

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A 5 kg block is pushed across a table by a horizontal force of 40 N with an acceleration of 5 m/s^2. What is the frictional forc
julsineya [31]

Answer:

15

Explanation:

mass, M = 5Kg

horizontal force, F_h = 40N

acceleration, a =5 m/s^2

frictional force, F_f =?

net force = ma

net force = F_h - F_f = 40N - F_f

40  - F_f = 5 x 5

- F_f = 25 - 40

multiply both side by -1

F_f = 40 - 25 = 15

the frictional force is 15N

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What gases can CFC and HCFC refrigerants decompose into at high temperatures
nekit [7.7K]

Answer:

Hydrochloric and Hydrofluoric Acids.

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A ball is projected upward at time t = 0.0 s, from a point on a roof 60 m above the ground. The ball rises, then falls until it
musickatia [10]
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to 10 Hz. Superimposed on this signal is 60-Hz noise with an amplitude of 0.1 V. It is desired to attenuate the 60-Hz signal to
givi [52]

Answer:

G \sqrt{1 +(\frac{f}{f_c})^{2n}} = 1

If we square both sides we got:

G^2 (1+\frac{f}{f_c})^{2n}= 1

We divide both sides by G^2 and we got:

(1+\frac{f}{f_c})^{2n} = \frac{1}{G^2}

Now we can apply log on both sides and we got:

2n ln(1+\frac{f}{f_c}) = ln (\frac{1}{G^2})

And solving for n we got:

n = \frac{ ln (\frac{1}{G^2})}{2ln(1+\frac{f}{f_c})}

And replacing we got:

n = \frac{ln (\frac{1}{0.1^2})}{2ln(1+\frac{60}{10})}

n = \frac{4.60517}{3.8918}=1.18

And since n needs to be an integer the correct answer would be n=2 for the filter order.

Explanation:

For this case we can use the formula for the Butterworth filter gain given by:

[tec] G = \frac{1}{\sqrt{1 +(\frac{f}{f_c})^{2n}}}[/tex]

Where:

G represent the transfer function and we want that G =0.1 since the desired signal is less than 10% of it's value

f_c = 10 Hz represent the corner frequency

f= 60 Hz represent the original frequency

n represent the filter order and that's the variable that we need to find

G \sqrt{1 +(\frac{f}{f_c})^{2n}} = 1

If we square both sides we got:

G^2 (1+\frac{f}{f_c})^{2n}= 1

We divide both sides by G^2 and we got:

(1+\frac{f}{f_c})^{2n} = \frac{1}{G^2}

Now we can apply log on both sides and we got:

2n ln(1+\frac{f}{f_c}) = ln (\frac{1}{G^2})

And solving for n we got:

n = \frac{ ln (\frac{1}{G^2})}{2ln(1+\frac{f}{f_c})}

And replacing we got:

n = \frac{ln (\frac{1}{0.1^2})}{2ln(1+\frac{60}{10})}

n = \frac{4.60517}{3.8918}=1.18

And since n needs to be an integer the correct answer would be n=2 for the filter order.

7 0
3 years ago
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