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3 years ago

Sound travels in waves. Sound waves cannot travel through A) air. B) solids. C) space. D) water. itsss D!!

Physics

2 answers:

coldgirl [10]3 years ago

7 0

Answer: Yes, the answer is D.

Explanation: Sound waves are transverse waves, which are the fastest type of wave and can travel (almost) any medium with the exception of a few natural elements.

goldfiish [28.3K]3 years ago

3 0

Answer: C

Explanation: YOUR WELCOME

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Could anyone help me for this question please!! Really emergency!!!

kodGreya [7K]

16/9 m/s^2
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5 0

3 years ago

Leoni is participating in four drawing competitions. If the probability of her losing any

Alex17521 [72]

Answer:

(a) $Probability = 0.7599$

(b) $Probability = 0.2646$

Explanation:

Represent losing with L and winning with W.

So:

$L = 0.7$ --- Given

$n = 4$

Probability of winning would be:

$W = 1 - L$

$W = 1 - 0.7$

$W = 0.3$

The question illustrates binomial probability and will be solved using the following binomial expansion;

$(L + W)^4 = L^4 + 4L^3W + 6L^2W^2 + 4LW^3 + W^4$

So:

Solving (a): Winning at least 1

We look at the above and we list out the terms where the powers of W is at least 1; i.e., 1,2,3 and 4

So, we have:

$Probability = 4L^3W + 6L^2W^2 + 4LW^3 + W^4$

Substitute value for W and L

$Probability = 4 * 0.7^3*0.3 + 6*0.7^2*0.3^2 + 4*0.7*0.3^3 + 0.3^4$

$Probability = 0.7599$

Hence, the probability of her winning at least one is 0.7599

Solving (a): Wining exactly 2

We look at the above and we list out the terms where the powers of W is exactly 2

So, we have:

$Probability = 6L^2W^2$

Substitute value for W and L

$Probability = 6*0.7^2*0.3^2$

$Probability = 0.2646$

Hence, the probability of her winning exactly two is 0.2646

6 0

2 years ago

Why can’t you hit a feather in mid air with a force of 200 N (This is all the info I was given)

Aloiza [94]

You cannot for real ehhhh

5 0

2 years ago

An object of mass 10.0kg is released at point A, slidesto the bottom of the 30° incline, then collides with ahorizontal massless

Elenna [48]

Answer:

Explanation:

Potential energy lost by mass = mgh

= 10 x 9.8 x 2 = 196 J

a ) If v be velocity of mass at the bottom , its kinetic energy will be stored in spring as elastic energy

= 1/2 m v² = 1/2 k x² , k is spring constant , x is compression , m is mass falling down

.5 x 10 v² = .5 x 500 x .75²

v = 5.3 m /s

b ) kinetic energy of mass at the bottom

= /2 m v²

= .5 x 10 x 5.3²

= 140.45 J

energy lost by mass while coming down

=potential energy at the top - kinetic energy at bottom

= 196 - 140.45

= 55.55 J .

This is equal to negative work done by friction

work done by friction = - 55.55 J

c ) Since there will be no loss of energy in compression and extension of spring so , no loss of kinetic energy will take place of mass . So it wil have same velocity that is 5.3 m /s while on its return journey.

d ) kinetic energy at the bottom = 140.45

loss of energy by friction again

= 140.45 - 55.55

= 84.9 J

If h be the height attained

mgh = 84.9

10 x 9.8 x h = 84.9

h = .866 m

( We have assumed that loss of energy in return journey will be same due to friction . )

6 0

3 years ago

Considera una sbarra di Lunghezza L = 62 m che poggia su

ddd [48]

Answer:

I do not know need points

Explanation:

6 0

3 years ago