According to Einstein's explanation of gravity, what causes Gravitation?

Physics

1 answer:

Vika [28.1K]3 years ago

8 0

Hello!

I would say B since it seems the most accurate according to Einstein's exact explanation for gravity.

Hope this helps! ~Pooch ♥

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Describe how all the air in the oven becomes hot?

vladimir1956 [14]

I think through convection I forget. Plus its enclosed (and, well closed)

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An artificial satellite circles Earth in a circular orbit at a location where the acceleration due to gravity is 9.00 m/s2. Dete

Ksju [112]

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here, the speed of the satellite is:

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Initially, a 2.00-kg mass is whirling at the end of a string (in a circular path of radius 0.750 m) on a horizontal frictionless

drek231 [11]

Answer:

$v_f = 15 \frac{m}{s}$

Explanation:

We can solve this problem using conservation of angular momentum.

The angular momentum $\vec{L}$ is

$\vec{L} = \vec{r} \times \vec{p}$

where $\vec{r}$ is the position and $\vec{p}$ the linear momentum.

We also know that the torque is

$\vec{\tau} = \frac{d\vec{L}}{dt} = \frac{d}{dt} ( \vec{r} \times \vec{p} )$

$\vec{\tau} = \frac{d}{dt} \vec{r} \times \vec{p} + \vec{r} \times \frac{d}{dt} \vec{p}$

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but, as the linear momentum is $\vec{p} = m \vec{v}$ this means that is parallel to the velocity, and the first term must equal zero

$\vec{v} \times \vec{p}=0$

$\vec{\tau} = \vec{r} \times \vec{F}$

But, as the only horizontal force is the tension of the string, the force must be parallel to the vector position measured from the vertical rod, so

$\vec{\tau}_{rod} = 0$