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Anni [7]
3 years ago
12

Light having a speed in vacuum of3.0�108m/s enters a liquid of refractive index 2.0. In this liquid, its speed will be A)0.75�10

8m/sB)6.0�108m/sC)1.5�108m/sD)3.0�108m/sE)None of the above choices are correct.
Physics
1 answer:
Murrr4er [49]3 years ago
3 0

Right answer: 1.5({10}^{8})m/s

The Absolute Refractive index n is the quotient of the speed of light in vacuum c and the speed of light in the medium whose index is calculated v, as shown in the expression below:

n=\frac{c}{v}     (1)

This is a dimensionless value.

If we know that:

c=3({10}^{8})m/s

n_{1}=1 is the refractive index in vacuum

n_{2}=2 is the refractive index in the liquid

We can use equation (1), with the values of n_{2} and c to calculate v_{liquid}, which is the velocity of light in this medium:

n_{2}=\frac{c}{v_{liquid}}     (2)

v_{liquid}=\frac{c}{n_{2}}     (3)

v_{liquid}=\frac{3({10}^{8})m/s}{2}    (4)

Finally:

v_{liquid}=1.5({10}^{8})m/s>>>>This is the speed of light in the liquid.

Therefore the correct option is c.  

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1/Rt = 1/7 + 1/49 
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6 0
2 years ago
A small block is attached to an ideal spring and is moving in SHM on a horizontal, frictionless surface. When the amplitude of t
Maslowich

Answer:

a) The time taken to travel from 0.18 m to -0.18m when the amplitude is doubled = 2.76 s

b) The time taken to travel from 0.09 m to -0.09 m when the amplitude is doubled = 0.92 s

Explanation:

a) The period of a simple harmonic motion is given as T = (1/f) = (2π/w)

It is evident that the period doesn't depend on amplitude, that is, it is independent of amplitude.

Hence, the time it would take the block to move from its amplitude point to the negative of the amplitude point (0.09 m to -0.09 m) in the first case will be the same time it will take the block to move from its amplitude point to negative of the amplitude point in the second case (0.18 m to -0.18 m).

Hence, time taken to travel from 0.18 m to -0.18m when the amplitude is doubled is 2.76 s

b) Now that the amplitude has been doubled, the time taken to move from amplitude point to the negative amplitude point in simple harmonic motion, just like with waves, is exactly half of the time period.

The time period is defined as the time taken to complete a whole cycle and a while cycle involves movement from the amplitude to point to the negative amplitude point then fully back to the amplitude point. Hence,

0.5T = 2.76 s

T = 2 × 2.76 = 5.52 s

Note that the displacement of a body undergoing simple harmonic motion from the equilibrium position is given as

y = A cos wt (provided that there's no phase difference, that is, Φ = 0)

A = amplitude = 0.18 m

w = (2π/5.52) = 1.138 rad/s

When y = 0.09 m, the time = t₁₂ = ?

0.09 = 0.18 Cos 1.138t₁ (angles in radians)

Cos 1.138t₁ = 0.5

1.138t₁ = arccos (0.5) = (π/3)

t₁ = π/(3×1.138) = 0.92 s

When y = -0.09 m, the time = t₂ = ?

-0.09 = 0.18 Cos 1.138t₂ (angles in radians)

Cos 1.138t₂ = -0.5

1.138t₂ = arccos (-0.5) = (2π/3)

t₂ = 2π/(3×1.138) = 1.84 s

Time taken to move from y = 0.09 m to y = -0.09 m is then t = t₂ - t₁ = 1.84 - 0.92 = 0.92 s

Hope this Helps!!!

3 0
2 years ago
To practice Problem-Solving Strategy 7.2 Problems Using Mechanical Energy II. The Great Sandini is a 60.0-kg circus performer wh
sp2606 [1]

Answer:

v = 15.45 m/s

Explanation:

As per mechanical energy conservation we can say that here since friction is present in the barrel so we will have

Work done by friction force = Loss in mechanical energy

so we will have

W_f = (U_i + K_i) - (U_f + K_f)

here we know that

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W_f = 40 \times 4

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F = kx

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x = 4 m

now from above equation

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160 = (\frac{1}{2}1100(4^2) + 0) - (60 \times 9.8\times 2.50 + \frac{1}{2}(60)v^2)

160 = 8800 - 1470 - 30 v^2

v = 15.45 m/s

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