<h3>
Answer:</h3>
Input work
<h3>
Explanation:</h3>
Concept being tested: Efficiency of machines
Therefore we need to know what is the efficiency of a machine
- Efficiency of a machine is the ratio of work output of machine to the work input expressed as a percentage.
Efficiency = (Work output ÷ Work input) × 100%
- Therefore, if the work input is equal to the work output then the efficiency of the machine will be 100%.
- Most machines are not 100% efficient due to loss of energy in form of heat due to friction of the moving parts of the machine.
Answer: b) they are the areas where Earth's magnetic field is weakest
Explanation:
According to classical physics, a magnetic field always has two associated magnetic poles (north and south), the same happens with magnets. This is because for <em>classical physics</em>, naturally, magnetic monopoles can not exist.
In this context, Earth is similar to a magnetic bar with a north pole and a south pole. This means, the axis that crosses the Earth from pole to pole is like a big magnet.
Now, by convention, on all magnets the north pole is where the magnetic lines of force leave the magnet and the south pole is where the magnetic lines of force enter the magnet. Then, for the case of the Earth, the north pole of the magnet is located towards the geographic south pole and the south pole of the magnet is near the geographic north pole.
Being the magnetic poles the places where the Earth's magnetic field is weakest. And it is for this reason, moreover, that the magnetic field lines enter the Earth through its magnetic south pole (which is the geographic north pole).
Answer:
Explanation:
Initial velocity is 0. In the equation v = v0+at where v0 is the initial velocity of 0, we only have to fill in -9.8 for a and 2 for t to get the velocity after 2 seconds -19.6 m/s; after 5 seconds, when it hits the ground, a = -9.8 and t = 5 to give a velocity of -49 m/s. Gravity pulls down everything at the same rate, it doesn't matter whether we drop a feather or an elephant from the window!
By the help of newtons law of gravitation we can derive keplers third law of planetary motion.
<h3><em><u>given</u></em><em><u>:</u></em></h3>
<em><u>first</u></em><em><u> </u></em><em><u>trip</u></em><em><u>=</u></em><em><u> </u></em><em><u>5</u></em><em><u>0</u></em><em><u> </u></em><em><u>miles</u></em><em><u>.</u></em>
<em><u>second</u></em><em><u> </u></em><em><u>trip</u></em><em><u>=</u></em><em><u> </u></em><em><u>3</u></em><em><u>0</u></em><em><u>0</u></em><em><u> </u></em><em><u>miles</u></em><em><u>.</u></em>
<h3><em><u>to</u></em><em><u> </u></em><em><u>find</u></em><em><u>:</u></em></h3>
<em><u>his</u></em><em><u> </u></em><em><u>new</u></em><em><u> </u></em><em><u>time</u></em><em><u> </u></em><em><u>compared</u></em><em><u> </u></em><em><u>to</u></em><em><u> </u></em><em><u>the</u></em><em><u> </u></em><em><u>old</u></em><em><u> </u></em><em><u>time</u></em><em><u>.</u></em>
<h3><em><u>solution</u></em><em><u>:</u></em></h3>
<em><u>Let speed of the 1st trip x miles / hr. and speed of the 2nd trip 3x / hr.</u></em>
<em><u>Speed = Distance/Time</u></em>
<em><u>So, times taken to covered a distance of 50 miles on his first trip = 50/x hr.</u></em>
<em><u>= 100/x hr</u></em>
<em><u>Therefore</u></em><em><u>,</u></em><em><u> </u></em><em><u>his new time compared with the old time was twice as much.</u></em>
<em><u>answer</u></em><em><u>=</u></em><em><u> </u></em><em><u>b</u></em><em><u>)</u></em><em><u> </u></em><em><u>twice</u></em><em><u> </u></em><em><u>as</u></em><em><u> </u></em><em><u>much</u></em>