That’s the color of the ball?
Answer:
460.52 s
Explanation:
Since the instantaneous rate of change of the voltage is proportional to the voltage in the condenser, we have that
dV/dt ∝ V
dV/dt = kV
separating the variables, we have
dV/V = kdt
integrating both sides, we have
∫dV/V = ∫kdt
㏑(V/V₀) = kt
V/V₀ = 
Since the instantaneous rate of change of the voltage is -0.01 of the voltage dV/dt = -0.01V
Since dV/dt = kV
-0.01V = kV
k = -0.01
So, V/V₀ = 
V = V₀
Given that the voltage decreases by 90 %, we have that the remaining voltage (100 % - 90%)V₀ = 10%V₀ = 0.1V₀
So, V = 0.1V₀
Thus
V = V₀
0.1V₀ = V₀
0.1V₀/V₀ =
0.1 =
to find the time, t it takes the voltage to decrease by 90%, we taking natural logarithm of both sides, we have
㏑(0.01) = -0.01t
So, t = ㏑(0.01)/-0.01
t = -4.6052/-0.01
t = 460.52 s
isotopes are the same element, but have different numbers of neutrons (but still have the same number of electrons and protons), hence have a different mass number.
I think the key here is to be exquisitely careful at all times, and
any time we make any move, keep our units with it.
We're given two angular speeds, and we need to solve for a time.
Outer (slower) planet:
Angular speed = ω rad/sec
Time per unit angle = (1/ω) sec/rad
Angle per revolution = 2π rad
Time per revolution = (1/ω sec/rad) · (2π rad) = 2π/ω seconds .
Inner (faster) planet:
Angular speed = 2ω rad/sec
Time per unit angle = (1/2ω) sec/rad
Angle per revolution = 2π rad
Time per revolution = (1/2ω sec/rad) · (2π rad) = 2π/2ω sec = π/ω seconds.
So far so good. We have the outer planet taking 2π/ω seconds for one
complete revolution, and the inner planet doing it in only π/ω seconds ...
half the time for double the angular speed. Perfect !
At this point, I know what I'm thinking, but it's hard to explain.
I'm pretty sure that the planets are in line on the same side whenever the
total elapsed time is something like a common multiple of their periods.
What I mean is:
They're in line, SOMEwhere on the circles, when
(a fraction of one orbit) = (the same fraction of the other orbit)
AND
the total elapsed time is a common multiple of their periods.
Wait ! Ignore all of that. I'm doing a good job of confusing myself, and
probably you too. It may be simpler than that. (I hope so.) Throw away
those last few paragraphs.
The planets are in line again as soon as the faster one has 'lapped'
the slower one ... gone around one more time.
So, however many of the longer period have passed, ONE MORE
of the shorter period have passed. We're just looking for the Least
Common Multiple of the two periods.
K (2π/ω seconds) = (K+1) (π/ω seconds)
2Kπ/ω = Kπ/ω + π/ω
Subtract Kπ/ω : Kπ/ω = π/ω
Multiply by ω/π : K = 1
(Now I have a feeling that I have just finished re-inventing the wheel.)
And there we have it:
In the time it takes the slower planet to revolve once,
the faster planet revolves twice, and catches up with it.
It will be 2π/ω seconds before the planets line up again.
When they do, they are again in the same position as shown
in the drawing.
To describe it another way . . .
When Kanye has completed its first revolution ...
Bieber has made it halfway around.
Bieber is crawling the rest of the way to the starting point while ...
Kanye is doing another complete revolution.
Kanye laps Bieber just as they both reach the starting point ...
Bieber for the first time, Kanye for the second time.
You're welcome. The generous bounty of 5 points is very gracious,
and is appreciated. The warm cloudy water and green breadcrust
are also delicious.
If all the energy she put into bending the bow is completely
transmitted to the arrow, then the arrow has the 100 joules
of kinetic energy when it leaves the bow.
Kinetic energy = (1/2) (mass) (speed)²
100 J = (1/2) (0.5 kg) (speed²)
Divide each side by 0.25 kg: 100 J / 0.25 kg = speed²
[ joule ] = [ newton-meter ] = kg-m²/sec²
100 kg-m²/sec² / 0.25 kg = speed²
400 m²/sec² = speed²
Take the square root of each side: speed = √400 m/s
20 m/s
(about 44.7 mph)
