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3 years ago

What are Radio Waves?

Physics

2 answers:

masha68 [24]3 years ago

6 0

Answer: Radio waves are invisible rays that only radio telescopes can detect.

AfilCa [17]3 years ago

5 0

Radio waves are electromagnetic waves with wavelengths of 1 millimeter or more . . . frequencies of 300 GHz or less.

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A hoist lifts a 1200 N object a vertical distance of 15 m in 15 s. 18,000 J of work is done on the object to raise it at a const

VladimirAG [237]

Answer:

1,200 W

Explanation:

18,000 J / 15s = 1,200 W

7 0

3 years ago

The effect of a particle in a fluid attaining its terminal velocity is that the?

eduard

Answer:

In fluid dynamics, an object is moving at its terminal velocity if its speed is constant due to the restraining force exerted by the fluid through which it is moving. ... At this point the object ceases to accelerate and continues falling at a constant speed called the terminal velocity (also called settling velocity).

5 0

3 years ago

It turns out that Mercury and Mars have the same gravity as one another – that is, you would weigh the same on the surface of Me

Tamiku [17]

Answer:

Explanation:

The value of acceleration due to gravity of mars is same as that the value of acceleration due to gravity of Mercury.

The value of acceleration due to gravity of a planet depends on its mass and the radius.

The formula for the acceleration due to gravity is given by

$g=\frac{GM}{R^{2}}$

Where, M be the mass of the planet, R be the radius of the planet.

As according to the question, the value of acceleration due to gravity for Mercury is same as that of Mars.

$\frac{GM_{mercury}}{R_{mercury}^{2}}=\frac{GM_{mars}}{R_{mars}^{2}}$

$\frac{M_{mercury}}{R_{mercury}^{2}}=\frac{M_{mars}}{R_{mars}^{2}}$

As teh radius of Mercury is small, and acceleration due to gravity is same, it is possible because the mass of Mercury is more than the mass of Mars.

4 0

3 years ago

Inthisexperiment,aspringforcewasusedtokeep moving object travelingin a circularpath.The size of a spring force should be proport

poizon [28]

Answer:

By calculation, it can be shown that;

K = $\frac{F_{angular}}{2\times x\times c}$

Whereby for constant K, as ${F_{angular}}$ increases, x also increases.

Explanation:

The experiment set up consisted of the use of a spring force to maintain the object in circular path.

The energy in the spring is given by

$\frac{1}{2}\cdot k\cdot x^2$ .

Rotational kinetic energy = $\frac{1}{2}$ ·I·ω²

Inertia, I = $\frac{1}{2}$ ·m·r²

ω = $\frac{v}{r}$

Substituting gives

Rotational kinetic energy = $\frac{1}{2}$ ·

= $\frac{1}{4}$ ·m· v²

Equating both equations gives

K = $\frac{2\times m\times v^2}{4\times x^{2} }$ = $\frac{1\times m\times v^2}{2\times x^{2} }$

Within the proportionality limit, x ∝ r

therefore we can write x = c·r which gives

$\frac{ m\times v^2}{2\times x\times c\times r }$ = $\frac{v^{2} }{r} \times\frac{m}{2\times x\times c}$

Since $\frac{v^{2} }{r}$ = angular acceleration, α, then

m× $\frac{v^{2} }{r}$ = Angular force

Therefore K = $\frac{F_{angular}}{2\times x\times c}$

Therefore as Force, F increases, x also increases and the size of a spring force should be proportional to the amount of stretch in the spring.

3 0

3 years ago

In which type of wave do air particles move together or apart parallel to the direction of the wave?

Phoenix [80]

The best and most correct answer among the choices provided by the question is B.sound waves.


Particles move together or apart parallel to the direction of the sound wave.

Hope my answer would be a great help for you.
If you have more questions feel free to ask here at Brainly.

8 0

3 years ago