Answer:
The value is 
Explanation:
From the question we are told that
The value of charge on each three point charge is

The length of the sides of the equilateral triangle is 
Generally the total potential energy is mathematically represented as
![U = k * [ \frac{q_1 * q_2}{r} + \frac{q_2 * q_3}{r} + \frac{q_3 * q_1}{r} ]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=U%20%20%3D%20k%20%2A%20%20%5B%20%5Cfrac%7Bq_1%20%2A%20%20q_2%7D%7Br%7D%20%20%2B%20%20%5Cfrac%7Bq_2%20%2A%20%20q_3%7D%7Br%7D%20%20%20%2B%20%5Cfrac%7Bq_3%20%2A%20%20q_1%7D%7Br%7D%20%5D)
=>
Here k is coulomb constant with value 
=>
Answer:
i) 3.514 s, ii) 5.692 m/s
Explanation:
i) We can use Newton's second law of motion to find out how long does it take for the Eagle to touch down.
as the equation says for free-falling
h = ut +0.5gt^2
Here, h = 10 m, g = acceleration due to gravity = 1.62 m/s^2( on moon surface)
initial velocity u = 0
10 = 0.5×1.62t^2
t = 3.514 seconds
Therefore, it takes t = 3.514 seconds for the Eagle to touch down.
ii) use Newton's 1st equation of motion to calculate the velocity of the lunar module when it hits the surface of the moon
v = u + gt
v = 0+ 1.62×3.514
v= 5.692 m/s
Answer:
Explanation:
Using Pascal laws, which states that pressure are the input equals the pressure at the output.
Pressure is given as force/area
P1=P2
Then,
F1/A1=F2/A2
Cross multiply
F1A2=F2A1
Given that
Ae=0.5m² area of effort
Al=5m² area of load
Fl=? Force if load
Fe= 100N. Force of effort
Then applying pascal
Fl/Al=Fe/Ae
Fl/5=100/0.5
FL/5=200
Fl=200×5
Fl=1000N
The first safety load is 1000N
Answer: One neutron
Explanation:
one neutron 1/0n
Sum up the mass numbers on the right 99 + 135 + 2 = 236.
The sum of the mass numbers on the left should equal 236. 235 + 1 = 236
Answer:

Explanation:
We need to apply conservation of momentum and energy to solve this problem.
<u>Conservation of momentum</u>

(1)
- m(c) is the mass of stick clay
- m(w) is the mass of the wooden block
- v(ic) is the initial velocity of clay
- V is the final velocity of the system clay plus wood.
<u>Conservation of total energy</u>
The change in kinetic energy is equal to the change in internal energy, in our case it would be the energy loss due to the friction force. Let's recall the definition of work, it is the dot product between force and displacement, Therefore:



We can find V from this equation:

Now, let's put V into the equation (1) and find v(ic)

I hope it helps you!
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