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3 years ago

Explain how a generator creates electricity.

Physics

2 answers:

Solnce55 [7]3 years ago

6 0

Answer:

Explanation:

Interesting question. Basically, it depends on the type of generator. Basically a generator converts mechanical energy into electrical energy.

How does it work? Well let's see an example:

When you have two magnets, they attract to each other right? Well, the reason of this atraction is called "Magnetic Field". When you put a magnet close to another there will be a magnetic force, in other words, one force that will cause any metalic object to be attracted to the magnect. So we could say that there's a magnetic field around the magnet that will make metalic objects be attracted to this magnet.

So, according to physics, if a magnetic field is changing over time it could induce voltage in a conductor.

How can a magnetic field change over time? Well, you can take two magnets and move them with your hands and the magnetic field will be changing over time.

So far we know that, if we change the magnetic field over time, we will generate electricity. But, how do we make the magnetic field change?

Well basically it depends on the type of generator. There are hydroelectric power plants, wind power plants, thermal power plants, etc. Basically, the difference between those power plants is how we make the magnetic field change.

In the case of wind power plants, the wind moves the turbines, that moves the axis of the generator that will make the magnetic field change over time.

In real life, two magnets will never induce enough voltage to power an entire house or a city. So instead of magnets we use what is called "electromagnet", which is basically like creating a magnet with electricity.

This is because when current is flowing through a conductor, it behaves exactly LIKE A MAGNET. So, if instead of magnets we just make current flow through conductors, then the effect will be the same. The magnetic field will change over time when the axis is moved.

I hope I answered your question.

faust18 [17]3 years ago

6 0

Answer:

An armature spins inside the magnetic field created by a permanent magnet. The magnetic field induces a current in the armature, generating electricity.

Explanation:

sample answer on edge

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An amoeba has 1.00 x 1016 protons and a net charge of 0.300 pC. Assuming there are 1.88 x 106 fewer electrons than protons, If y

Xelga [282]

Answer:

The fraction of the protons would have no electrons $=1.88\times 10^{-10}$

Explanation:

We are given that

Amoeba has total number of protons= $1.00\times 10^{16}$

Net charge, Q=0.300pC

Electrons are fewer than protons= $1.88\times 10^6$

We have to find the fraction of protons would have no electrons.

The fraction of the protons would have no electrons

= $\frac{Fewer\;electrons}{Total\;protons}$

The fraction of the protons would have no electrons

= $\frac{1.88\times 10^{6}}{1.00\times 10^{16}}$

$=1.88\times 10^{-10}$

Hence, the fraction of the protons would have no electrons $=1.88\times 10^{-10}$

6 0

3 years ago

Daniel takes his two dogs, Pauli the Pointer and Newton the Newfoundland, out to a field and lets them loose to exercise. Both d

DedPeter [7]

Answer:

Velocity of Pauli relative to Daniel = (-1.50ï + 3.90ĵ) m/s

x-component = -1.50 m/s

y-component = 3.90 m/s

Explanation:

Relative velocity of a body A relative to another body B, Vab, is given as

Vab = Va - Vb

where

Va = Relative velocity of body A with respect to another third body or frame of reference C

Vb = Relative velocity of body B with respect to that same third body or frame of reference C.

So, relative velocity can be given further as

Vab = Vac - Vbc

Velocity of Newton relative to Daniel = Vnd = 3.90 m/s due north = (3.90ĵ) m/s in vector form.

Velocity of Newton relative to Pauli = Vnp = 1.50 m/s due East = (1.50î) m/s in vector form

What is Pauli's velocity relative to Daniel?

Vpd = Vp - Vd

(Pauli's velocity relative to Daniel) = (Pauli's velocity relative to Newton) - (Daniel's velocity relative to Newton)

Vpd = Vpn - Vdn

Vpn = -Vnp = -(1.50î) m/s

Vdn = -Vnd = -(3.90ĵ) m/s

Vpd = -1.50î - (-3.90ĵ)

Velocity of Pauli relative to Daniel = (-1.50ï + 3.90ĵ) m/s

Hope this Helps!!!!

5 0

3 years ago

Tarzan has foolishly gotten himself into another scrape with the animals and must be rescued once again by Jane. The 60.0 kg Jan

Brut [27]

Complete part of Question: What is Jane's (and the vine's) angular speed just before she grabs Tarzan

Answer:

Jane's (and the vine's) angular speed just before she grabs Tarzan, w = 1.267 rad/s

Explanation:

According to the law of energy conservation:

Total change in kinetic energy = Total change in potential energy

Mass of Jane = 60 kg

Mass of the vine = 32 kg

Mass of Tarzan = 72 kg

Height of Tarzan = 5.50 m

Length of the vine = 8.50 m

Jane's change in gravitational potential energy,

$U_J = 60 * 9.8 * 5.5\\U_J = 3234 J$

Vine's gravitational potential energy,

$U_v = Mgh/2\\U_v = 32*9.8*5.5/2\\U_v = 862.4J$

Vine's Kinetic energy :

$KE_V = 0.5 I w^{2} \\I_V = \frac{ML^2}{3} = \frac{32 * 8.5^2}{3} = 770.67 kg m^2\\ KE_V = 0.5 *770.67 * w^{2}\\KE_V = 385.33 w^{2}$

Jane's Kinetic energy:

$KE_J = 0.5m(wL)^2\\KE_J = 0.5*60(w * 8.5)^2\\KE_J = 2167.5 w^2$

$U_J + U_V = KE_J + KE_V$

3234 + 862.4 = 2167.5w² + 385.33w²

4096.4 = 2552.83w²

w² = 4096.4/2552.83

w² = 1.605

w = √1.605

w = 1.267 rad/s

5 0

3 years ago

What is kinetic energy

mixas84 [53]

(symbol K) Energy that an object possesses because it is in motion. It is the energy given to an object to set it in motion; it depends on the mass (m) of the object and its velocity (v), according to the equation K = 1/2 mv2. On impact, it is converted into other forms of energy such as heat, sound and light.

8 0

3 years ago

Is it possible for the momentum of a system consisting of two carts on a low-friction track to be zero even if both carts are mo

choli [55]

Answer:

Yes, if the two carts are moving into opposite directions

Explanation:

The total momentum of the system of two carts is given by:

$p=m_1 v_1 + m_2 v_2$

where

m1, m2 are the masses of the two carts

v1, v2 are the velocities of the two carts

Let's remind that v (the velocity) is a vector, so its sign depends on the direction in which the cart is moving.

We want to know if it is possible that the total momentum of the system can be zero, so it must be:

$p=0\\m_1 v_1 + m_2 v_2 = 0\\m_1 v_1 = -m_2 v_2$

From this equation, we see that this condition can only occur if v1 and v2 have opposite signs. Opposite signs mean opposite directions: therefore, the total momentum can be zero if the two carts are moving into opposite directions.

4 0

3 years ago