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Lady_Fox [76]
3 years ago
14

Passband to baseband conversion: Consider the following passband signal,

Engineering
1 answer:
defon3 years ago
5 0

Answer:fr

Explanation:

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A pitfall cited in Section 1.10 is expecting to improve the overall performance of a computer by improving only one aspect of th
Oxana [17]

Answer:

a) For this case the new time to run the FP operation would be reduced 20% so that means 100-20% =80% from the original time

(1-0.2)*70 s =56s

The reduction on this case is 70-56 s=14s

And since the new total time would be given by 250-14=236 s

b) For this case the total time is reduced 20%  so that means that the new total time would be (1-0.2)=0.8 times the original total time (1-0.2) *250s =200 s

The original time for INT operations is calculated as:

250 = 70+85+40 +t_{INT}

t_{INT}=55s

For this part the only time that was changed is assumed the INT operations so then:

200 = 70+85+40 \Delta t_{INT}

And then: \Delta t_{INT}= 200-70-85-40=5 s

c) A reduction of the total time implies that the total time would be 205 s from the results above. And the time for FP is 70, for L/S is 85 and for INT operations is 55 s, so then if we add 70+85+55=210s, we see that 210>205 so then we cannot reduce the total time 20% just reducing the branch intructions.

Explanation:

From the info given we know that a computer running a program that requires 250 s, with 70 s spent executing FP instructions, 85 s executed L/S instructions and 40 s spent executing branch instructions.

Part 1

For this case the new time to run the FP operation would be reduced 20% so that means 100-20% =80% from the original time

(1-0.2)*70 s =56s

The reduction on this case is 70-56 s=14s

And since the new total time would be given by 250-14=236 s

Part 2

For this case the total time is reduced 20%  so that means that the new total time would be (1-0.2)=0.8 times the original total time (1-0.2) *250s =200 s

The original time for INT operations is calculated as:

250 = 70+85+40 +t_{INT}

t_{INT}=55s

For this part the only time that was changed is assumed the INT operations so then:

200 = 70+85+40 \Delta t_{INT}

And then: \Delta t_{INT}= 200-70-85-40=5 s

And we can quantify the decrease using the relative change:

\% Change = \frac{5s}{55 s} *100 = 9.09\% of reduction

Part 3

A reduction of the total time implies that the total time would be 205 s from the results above. And the time for FP is 70, for L/S is 85 and for INT operations is 55 s, so then if we add 70+85+55=210s, we see that 210>205 so then we cannot reduce the total time 20% just reducing the branch intructions.

8 0
3 years ago
Okay bro let’s go man yes yes
r-ruslan [8.4K]
Sheeeeeesh bro same name ayoooo??
8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
3. When starting an automatic transmission
Alexxandr [17]

Answer:

It should be in Park or Neutral.

Explanation:

4 0
4 years ago
What is the basic formula for actual mechanical advantage?
slavikrds [6]

Answer:

Mechanical Advantage Formula

The efficiency of a machine is equal to the ratio of its output to its input. It is also equal to the ratio of the actual and theoretical MAs. But, it does not mean that low-efficiency machines are of limited use. An automobile jack, for example, have to overcome a great deal of friction and therefore it has low efficiency. But still, it is extremely valuable because small effort can be applied to lift a great weight.

Also, in another way the mechanical advantage is the force generated by a machine to the force applied to it which is applied in assessing the performance of the machine.

The mechanical advantage formula is:

MA = FBFA

Explanation:

MAmechanical advantageFBthe force of the object

FAthe effort to overcome the force

3 0
3 years ago
A pumping test was made in pervious gravels and sands extending to a depth of 50 ft. ,where a bed of clay was encountered. The n
Vikki [24]

Answer:per minute from the pumping well, a steady state was attained in about 24 hr. The draw-down at a distance of 10 ft. was 5.5 ft. and at 25 ft. was 1.21 ft.

Explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
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