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3 years ago

A good refrigerant must have a high boiling point. Question 5 options: True False

Physics

2 answers:

Liono4ka [1.6K]3 years ago

5 0

Answer:

true a good refrigiant needs a high boiling point

NeTakaya3 years ago

3 0

A good refrigerant must have a high boiling point is FALSE.

<u>Explanation: </u>

It has the low boiling point. It should have the ability to turn into gas in absorption of heat.

If the refrigerant need to be good and ideal must have the boiling point low and freezing point also low. The low boiling point makes the refrigerant to be good as it needs to boil when the temperature crosses the limit.

It has the high critical pressure and temperature in order to avoid the large power requirements of the compressor in the refrigerator.

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Two forces act on the screw eye. If F = 600 N, determine the magnitude of the resultant force and the angle θ if the resultant f

kobusy [5.1K]

Answer:

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3 years ago

Which object has the least amount of kinetic energy? a car driving down a road a soccer ball rolling down a hill a bicycle locke

mars1129 [50]

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3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Suppose a skydiver (mass = 75 kg) is falling toward the Earth. When the skydiver is 100 m above the Earth he is moving at 60 m/s

Andrej [43]

Answer:

Potential energy = 73.575 kJ

Kinetic energy = 135kJ

Total mechanical energy = 208.575 kJ

Explanation:

The potential energy of a body is given by the expression, PE = mgh, where m is the mass of the body, g is the acceleration due to gravity value and h is the height of the body.

The kinetic energy of a body is given by $KE=\frac{1}{2} mv^2$ , where v is the velocity and m is the mass of body.

Total mechanical energy = Kinetic energy + Potential energy

$KE=\frac{1}{2} mv^2=\frac{1}{2} *75*60^2= 135000J = 135kJ$

PE = mgh = 75*9.81*100 = 73575 J = 73.575 kJ

Total mechanical energy = Kinetic energy + Potential energy = 135+73.575

= 208.575 kJ

4 0

3 years ago

Given the initial wavefunction Ψ (x, 0) = Axexp (-k x) withx> 0 andk> 0, and Ψ (x, 0) = 0 forx <0, what value must A ta

madam [21]

Answer with explanation:

The Normalization Principle states that

$\int_{-\infty }^{+\infty }f(x)dx=1$

Given

$f(x)=xe^{-kx}(x>0\\\\0(x$

Thus solving the integral we get

$\int_{0 }^{+\infty }A\cdot xe^{-kx}dx=1\\\\A\int_{0 }^{+\infty }\cdot xe^{-kx}dx=1$

The integral shall be solved using chain rule initially and finally we shall apply the limits as shown below

$I=\int xe^{-kx}dx\\\\x\int e^{-kx}dx-\int \frac{d(x)}{dx}\int e^{-kx}dx\\\\-\frac{xe^{-kx}}{k}-\int 1\cdot \frac{-e^{-kx}}{k}\\\\\therefore I=\frac{e^{-kx}}{k}-\frac{xe^{-kx}}{k}$