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elena-s [515]
3 years ago
7

The energy flow per unit time per unit area (S) of an electromagnetic wave has an average value of 440 mW/m2. The maximum value

of the magnetic field in the wave is closest:
Physics
1 answer:
mafiozo [28]3 years ago
7 0

To solve this problem we will proceed to convert the Intensity Units given to a normal system, that is, to standardize their value. Later we will use the value of the electric field according to the RMS electric field, to find it.

Finally the magnetic field would be given based on the previously found electric field, depending on the speed of light:

The value of the intensity is:

I = 440mW/m^2 = 0.440W/m^2

The maximum value of the electric field is,

E_{max} = \sqrt{2}E_{rms}

E_{max} = \sqrt{2}\sqrt{Ic\mu_0}

Where,

I = Intensity,

\mu= Permeability constant

c = Speed of light

Replacing,

E_{max} = \sqrt{2}\sqrt{(0.440)(3*10^8)(4\pi*10^{-7})}

E_{max} = 18.2V/m

The maximum value of the magnetic field is,

B_{max} = \frac{E_{max}}{c}

B_{max} = \frac{18.2}{3*10^8}

B_{max} = 6.06*10^{-8}T

Therefore the maximum magnetic field is 7.10*10^{-8}T

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Particle A of charge 2.79 10-4 C is at the origin, particle B of charge -5.64 10-4 C is at (4.00 m, 0), and particle C of charge
kirill [66]

Answer:

a) 0 b) 29.9 N c) 21.7 N d) -17.4 N e) -13.0 N f) -17.4 N  g) 16.9 N

h) 24.3 N θ = 44.2º

Explanation:

a) As the electric force is exerted along the line that joins the charges, due to any of the charges A or C has non-zero x-coordinates, the force has no x components either.

So, Fcax = 0

b) Similarly, as Fx = 0, the entire force is directed along the y-axis, and is going upward, due both charges repel each other.

Fyca = k*qa*qc / rac² = (9.10⁹ N*m²/C²*(2.79)*(1.07)*10⁻⁸ C²) / 9.00 m²

Fyca = 29. 9 N

c) In order to get the magnitude of the force exerted by B on C, we need to know first the distance between both charges:

rbc² = (3.00 m)² + (4.00m)² = 25.0 m²

⇒ Fbc = k*qb*qc / rbc² = (9.10⁹ N*m²/C²*(5.64)*(1.07)*10⁻⁸ C²) / 25.0 m²

⇒ Fbc = 21.7 N

d) In order to get the x component of Fbc, we need to get the projection of Fcb over the x axis, taking into account that the force on particle C is attractive, as follows:

Fbcₓ = Fbc * cos (-θ) where θ, is the angle that makes the line of action of the force, with the x-axis, so we can write:

cos θ = x/r = 4.00 / 5.00 m =

Fcbx = 21.7*(-0.8) = -17.4 N

e) The  y component can be calculated in the same way, projecting the force over the y-axis, as follows:

Fcby = Fcb* sin (-θ) = 21.7* (-3.00/5.00) = -13.0 N

f) The sum of both x components gives :

Fcx = 0 + (-17.4 N) = -17.4 N

g) The sum of both y components gives :

Fcy = 29.9 N + (-13.0 N) = 16.9 N

h) The magnitude of the resultant electric force acting on C, can be found just applying Pythagorean Theorem, as follows:

Fc = √(Fcx)²+(Fcy)² = (17.4)² + (16.9)²\sqrt{((17.4)^{2} +(16.9)^{2}} = 24.3 N

The angle from the horizontal can be found as follows:

Ф = arc tg (16.9 / 17.4) = 44.2º

4 0
3 years ago
What type of motion occurs when an object spends around and axis without altering its linear position?
ch4aika [34]
I believe it is called centripetal force <span />
7 0
3 years ago
For what absolute value of the phase angle does a source deliver 71 % of the maximum possible power to an RLC circuit
kherson [118]

Answer: the absolute value of the phase angle is 28°

Explanation:

taking a look at expression for the instantaneous electric power in an AC circuit;

P = VI -------let this be equation 1

p is power, v is voltage and I is current;

for maximum power

P_max = V_rms × I_rms --------let this be equ 2

where P_max is the maximum power, V_rms is the rms value of voltage and I_rms is the rms value of current.

Also for average electric power in an AC circuit

P_avg = V_rms × I_rms × cos²∅ -------let this be equ 3

where P_avg is the average power and cos∅ is the power factor

now from equation 2;  P_max = V_rms × I_rms

so p_max replaces V_rms × I_rms in equation 3

we now have

P_avg = P_max × cos²∅

so we substitute

expression for the given value of the average power is

P_avg = P_max × 75%

p_avg = P_max.78/100

for the expression of the average electricity in an AC circuit

P_max.78/100 = P_max × cos²∅

78/100 = cos²∅

to get the absolute value of phase angle

∅ = cos⁻¹ ( √(78/100))

∅ =  cos⁻¹ ( 0.8832)

∅ = 27.969 ≈ 28°

Therefore the absolute value of the phase angle is 28°

8 0
2 years ago
A package of mass m is released from rest at a warehouse loading dock and slides down a 3.0-m-high frictionless chute to a waiti
LuckyWell [14K]

Answer:

The speed of the package of mass m right before the collision = 7.668\ ms^-1

Their common speed after the collision = 2.56\ ms^-1

Height achieved by the package of mass m when it rebounds = 0.33\ m

Explanation:

Have a look to the diagrams attached below.

a.To find the speed of the package of mass m right before collision we have to use law of conservation of energy.

K_{initial} + U_{initial} = K_{final}+U_{final}

where K is Kinetic energy and U is Potential energy.

K= \frac{mv^2}{2} and U= mgh

Considering the fact  K_{initial} = 0\ and U_{final} =0 we will plug out he values of the given terms.

So V_{1}{(initial)} =\sqrt{2gh} = \sqrt{2\times9.8\times3} = 7.668\ ms^-1

Keypoints:

  • Sum of energies and momentum are conserved in all collisions.
  • Sum of KE and PE is also known as Mechanical energy.
  • Only KE is conserved for elastic collision.
  • for elastic collison we have e=1 that is co-efficient of restitution.

<u>KE = Kinetic Energy and PE = Potential Energy</u>

b.Now when the package stick together there momentum is conserved.

Using law of conservation of momentum.

m_1V_1(i) = (m_1+m_2)V_f where V_1{i} =7.668\ ms^-1.

Plugging the values we have

m\times 7.668 = (3m)\times V_{f}

Cancelling m from both sides and dividing 3 on both sides.

V_f = 2.56\ ms^-1

Law of conservation of energy will be followed over here.

c.Now the collision is perfectly elastic e=1

We have to find the value of V_{f} for m mass.

As here V_{f}=-2.56\ ms^-1 we can use that if both are moving in right ward with 2.56 then there is a  -2.56 velocity when they have to move leftward.

The best option is to use the formulas given in third slide to calculate final velocity of object 1.

So

V_{1f} = \frac{m_1-m_2}{m_1+m_2} \times V_{1i}= \frac{m-2m}{3m} \times7.668=\frac{-7.668}{3} = -2.56\ ms^-1

Now using law of conservation of energy.

K_{initial} + U_{initial} = K_{final}+U_{final}

\frac{m\times V(f1)^2}{2} + 0 = 0 +mgh

\frac{v(f1)^2}{2g} = h

h= \frac{(-2.56)^2}{9.8\times 3} =0.33\ m

The linear momentum is conserved before and after this perfectly elastic collision.

So for part a we have the speed =7.668\ ms^-1 for part b we have their common speed =2.56\ ms^-1 and for part c we have the rebound height =0.33\ m.

3 0
3 years ago
What is the acceleration of a Porsche that can go from 15 mi/hr to 75 mi/hr in 4 seconds?
Elodia [21]

Hi there!

Acceleration = change in velocity / change in time = Δv/Δt

Thus:

a = (75 - 15)/4 = 60/4 = 15 mi/hr²

8 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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