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STALIN [3.7K]
4 years ago
12

A box of mass m1 = 20.0 kg is released from rest at a warehouse loading dock and slides down a 3.0 m-high frictionless chute to

a waiting truck. It happens a box of m2 = 40.0 kg was left at the bottom of the chute. What is the impulse acting on m2 during the collision between the two boxes?
Physics
1 answer:
Harrizon [31]4 years ago
8 0

´To develop this problem we will use the concepts related to the conservation of momentum and the application of energy conservation equations to find the velocity of the mass after the collision, like this:

Velocity of the mass m_1 just before the collision

v_1 = \sqrt{2gh}

v_1 = \sqrt{2(9.8)(3)}

v_1 = 7.67m/s

Therefore the momentum just before collision would be

p_2 = m_1v_1+40(0)\\p_1 = 20*7.67+40(0)\\p_1 = 153.36kg \cdot m/s

Momentum after the collision

p_1 = 20*u_1+40u_1\\p_1 = 60u_1

Since the momentum is conserved we have that

153.36= 60u_1

u_1 = \frac{153.36}{60}

u_1 = 2.56m/s

The velocity of mass m_2 after the collision is given by

v_2 = \frac{2m_1}{m_1+m_2} u_1

v_2 = \frac{2(20)}{20+40}(2.56)

v_2 = 1.71m/s

Therefore the change in momentum of mass 2 is

p_2 = m_2v_2

p_2 = 40*1.71

p_2 = 68.4kg\cdot m/s

Therefore the impulse acting on m2 during the collision between the two boxes is p = 68.4kg\cdot m/s

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Answer:

Check the explanation

Explanation:

1) Pressure acting on the plug = Patm + P

Pressure = Patm + rho*g*h (Here h = D2)

Pressure = 101325 + 1000*9.8*7

Pressure = 169925 Pa

so, Force = PA

Force = 169925*pi*0.0152

Force = 120.1 N

7 0
3 years ago
A heat engine with 0.300 mol of a monatomic ideal gas initially fills a 1000 cm3 cylinder at 500 K . The gas goes through the fo
LuckyWell [14K]

Complete Question:

A heat engine with 0.300 mol of a monatomic ideal gas initially fills a 1000 cm3 cylinder at 500 K . The gas goes through the following closed cycle: - Isothermal expansion to 5000 cm3. - Isochoric cooling to 400 K . - Isothermal compression to 1000 cm3. - Isochoric heating to 500 K .

a) what is the work for one cycle

b) what is the thermal efficiency

Answer:

a) Work done for 1 cycle = 402.13

b) Thermal efficiency = 20%

Explanation:

Number of moles, n = 0.300 mol

Initial Volume, V₁ = 1000 cm³

Temperature, T = 500 K

Isothermal expansion to 5000 cm³

Final volume, V₂ = 5000 cm³

R = 8.314 J/ mol.K

Work done, W = nRT ln(V₂/V₁)

W = (0.3 * 8.314 * 500) * ln(5000/1000)

W = 1247.1 * ln5

W₁ = 2007.13 J

Isochoric cooling

In an Isochoric process, volume is constant i.e. V₂ = V₁ = V

W = nRT ln(V/V)

But  ln(V/V) = ln 1 = 0

Work done, W₂ = 0 Joules

Isothermal Compression to 1000 cm³

V₂ = 1000 cm³

V₁ = 5000 cm³

W = nRT ln(V₂/V₁)

W = 0.3 * 8.314 * 400 ln(1000/5000)

W₃ = -1605 J

Isochoric heating to 500 K

Since there is no change in volume, no work is done

W₄ = 0 J

a) Work done for 1 cycle

W = W₁ + W₂ + W₃ + W₄

W = 2007.13 + 0 + 0 -1605+0

W = 402.13 Joules

b) Thermal efficiency

Thermal efficiency = (Net workdone for 1 cycle)/(Heat absorbed)

Heat absorbed = Work done due to thermal expansion = 2007.13 J

Thermal efficiency = 402.13/2007.13

Thermal efficiency = 0.2

Thermal efficiency = 0.2 * 100% = 20 %

3 0
4 years ago
A skater extends her arms, holding a 2 kg mass in each hand. She is rotating about a vertical axis at a given rate. She brings h
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Explanation:

It is known that relation between torque and angular acceleration is as follows.

                    \tau = I \times \alpha

and,       I = \sum mr^{2}

So,      I_{1} = 2 kg \times (1 m)^{2} + 2 kg \times (1 m)^{2}

                       = 4 kg m^{2}

      \tau_{1} = 4 kg m^{2} \times \alpha_{1}

     \tau_{2} = I_{2} \alpha_{2}

So,      I_{2} = 2 kg \times (0.5 m)^{2} + 2 kg \times (0.5 m)^{2}

                     = 1 kg m^{2}

 as \tau_{2} = I_{2} \alpha_{2}

                   = 1 kg m^{2} \times \alpha_{2}        

Hence,     \tau_{1} = \tau_{2}

                  4 \alpha_{1} = \alpha_{2}

            \alpha_{1} = \frac{1}{4} \alpha_{2}

Thus, we can conclude that the new rotation is \frac{1}{4} times that of the first rotation rate.

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4 years ago
A. How long (in ns) does it take light to travel 1.0 m in a vacuum?
suter [353]

Answer:

a) 3.33 ns

b) Water distance = 0.75 m

Glass distance = 0.66 m

Diamond distance = 0.41 m

Explanation:

We take the speed of light, c = m/s.

Speed = distance/time

Time = distance/speed

a)

t=\dfrac{1}{3.0\times10^{8}}=3.33\times10^{-9}

t = 3.33 ns

b)

Refractive index, n = speed of light in vacuum / speed of light in medium

n=\dfrac{c}{s}

s=\dfrac{c}{n}

d=s\times t

d=\dfrac{c}{n}\times \dfrac{1}{c}

d=\dfrac{1}{n}

Thus, the distance traveled in the same time is numerically equal to the reciprocal of the refractive index.

For water n = 1.333

d = 1/1.333 = 0.75 m

For glass n = 1.517

d = 0.66 m

For diamond n = 2.417

d = 0.41 m

4 0
3 years ago
Marine magnetic anomalies result from seafloor spreading in conjunction with
Artemon [7]
Earths magnetic field
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