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ycow [4]
3 years ago
8

If a baseball has a zero velocity at some instant, is the acceleration of the baseball necessarily zero at that time? Explain -

making sure to give an example of an object that has a zero velocity but non-zero acceleration.
Physics
1 answer:
ipn [44]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

No, not necessarily

Explanation:

If an object is moving with an acceleration that causes its speed to be reduced, there will be a moment in which it reaches v = 0, but this doesn't necessarily mean that the acceleration isn't acting anymore. If the object continues its movement with the same acceleration, it's velocity will become negative.

An example of an object that has zero velocity but non-zero acceleration:

If you throw an object in the air with a certain velocity, it will move vertically, reducing its velocity in a 9,8 m/s^{2} rate (which is the acceleration caused by gravity). At a certain point, the object will reach its maximum height, and will start to fall. In the exact moment that it reaches the maximum height, before it starts falling, its velocity is zero, but gravity is still acting on the object (this is the reason why it starts falling instead of just being stopped at that point). Therefore, at that point, the object has zero velocity but an acceleration of 9,8 m/s^{2}.

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