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3 years ago

In which of these examples is the greatest movement occurring?

Physics

2 answers:

vlada-n [284]3 years ago

7 0

You need to provide a picture or tell us the examples... we can’t see what you see

Sloan [31]3 years ago

6 0

Answer:

The answer is C because it has the most movement going in one direction.

Explanation:

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Patrick is repairing the roof on his house. He uses a hammer having a mass of 1 kilogram. While working at the apex of the roof,

pav-90 [236]

Answer:

72 joules

Explanation:

The potential energy of that hammer is a function of its displacement against gravity. Considering that it fell with a velocity of 12 m/s, it was its displacement against gravity that gave it this velocity. It will continue to move until its displacement to gravity is zero.

since the body is in motion; it has converted its potential energy (mgh, m is mass, g is acceleration due to gravity, and h is the height) to kinetic energy (energy due to motion, 1/2mv^2; m = mass, v = velocity or speed)

therefore the potential energy is equal to kinetic energy

mgh = 1/2mv^2 = 1/2 *1kg* 12*12 = 72 joules.

5 0

3 years ago

How much work is done (in Joules) by a weightlifter in raising a 60-kg barbell from the floor to a height of 2m? Work done =

Vika [28.1K]

Answer:

1176 Nm or J

Explanation:

W = F*d

F = 60kg * 9.8 kgm/s^2 = 588 N

W = 588 N * 2m = 1176 N*m

7 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Higher levels of co2 are more likely to be found where on the earth? question 15 options: uniformly around the globe as winds bl

AlladinOne [14]

Uniformly around the globe. it is mostly found in earths atmosphere.

5 0

3 years ago

You are working with a team to design a better electron microscope. To precisely control the beam of electrons, your team decide

rewona [7]

Answer and Explanation:

(a) The attached image below shows the diagram of a CRT in the helmholtz coils and well labelled with details

(b). The electron will follow a circular path which travels along under constant magnetic field

$r = \frac{mV}{qB}$

where m = mass of electron, V = velocity of electron, q = charge of the electron and B = magnetic field strength

4 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Consider two thin, coaxial, coplanar, uniformly charged rings with radii a and b푏 (a

Wittaler [7]

Answer:

electric potential, V = -q(a²- b²)/8π∈₀r³

Explanation:

Question (in proper order)

Consider two thin coaxial, coplanar, uniformly charged rings with radii a and b (b < a) and charges q and -q, respectively. Determine the potential at large distances from the rings

<em>consider the attached diagram below</em>

the electric potential at point p, distance r from the center of the outer charged ring with radius a is as given below

Va = q/4π∈₀ [1/(a² + b²)¹/²]

$Va = \frac{q}{4\pi e0} * \frac{1}{(a^{2} + r^{2} )^{1/2} }$

Also

the electric potential at point p, distance r from the center of the inner charged ring with radius b is

$Vb = \frac{-q}{4\pi e0} * \frac{1}{(b^{2} + r^{2} )^{1/2} }$

Sum of the potential at point p is

V = Va + Vb

that is

$V = \frac{q}{4\pi e0} * \frac{1}{(a^{2} + r^{2} )^{1/2} } + \frac{-q}{4\pi e0 } * \frac{1}{(b^{2} + r^{2} )^{1/2} }$

$V = \frac{q}{4\pi e0} * \frac{1}{(a^{2} + r^{2} )^{1/2} } - \frac{q}{4\pi e0 } * \frac{1}{(b^{2} + r^{2} )^{1/2} }$

$V = \frac{q}{4\pi e0} * [\frac{1}{(a^{2} + r^{2} )^{1/2} } - \frac{1}{(b^{2} + r^{2} )^{1/2} }]$

the expression below can be written as the equivalent

$\frac{1}{(a^{2} + r^{2} )^{1/2} } = \frac{1}{(r^{2} + a^{2} )^{1/2} } = \frac{1}{{r(1^{2} + \frac{a^{2} }{r^{2} } )}^{1/2} }$

likewise,

$\frac{1}{(b^{2} + r^{2} )^{1/2} } = \frac{1}{(r^{2} + b^{2} )^{1/2} } = \frac{1}{{r(1^{2} + \frac{b^{2} }{r^{2} } )}^{1/2} }$

hence,

$V = \frac{q}{4\pi e0} * [\frac{1}{{r(1^{2} + \frac{a^{2} }{r^{2} } )}^{1/2} } - \frac{1}{{r(1^{2} + \frac{b^{2} }{r^{2} } )}^{1/2} }]$

1/r is common to both equation

hence, we have it out and joined to the 4π∈₀ denominator that is outside

$V = \frac{q}{4\pi e0 r} * [\frac{1}{{(1^{2} + \frac{a^{2} }{r^{2} } )}^{1/2} } - \frac{1}{{(1^{2} + \frac{b^{2} }{r^{2} } )}^{1/2} }]$

by reciprocal rule

1/a² = a⁻²

$V = \frac{q}{4\pi e0 r} * [{(1^{2} + \frac{a^{2} }{r^{2} } )}^{-1/2} - {(1^{2} + \frac{b^{2} }{r^{2} } )}^{-1/2}]$

by binomial expansion of fractional powers

where $(1+a)^{n} =1+na+\frac{n(n-1)a^{2} }{2!}+ \frac{n(n-1)(n-2)a^{3}}{3!}+...$

if we expand the expression we have the equivalent as shown

${(1^{2} + \frac{a^{2} }{r^{2} } )}^{-1/2} = (1-\frac{a^{2} }{2r^{2} } )$

also,

${(1^{2} + \frac{b^{2} }{r^{2} } )}^{-1/2} = (1-\frac{b^{2} }{2r^{2} } )$

the above equation becomes

$V = \frac{q}{4\pi e0 r} * [((1-\frac{a^{2} }{2r^{2} } ) - (1-\frac{b^{2} }{2r^{2} } )]$

$V = \frac{q}{4\pi e0 r} * [1-\frac{a^{2} }{2r^{2} } - 1+\frac{b^{2} }{2r^{2} }]$

$V = \frac{q}{4\pi e0 r} * [-\frac{a^{2} }{2r^{2} } +\frac{b^{2} }{2r^{2} }]\\\\V = \frac{q}{4\pi e0 r} * [\frac{b^{2} }{2r^{2} } -\frac{a^{2} }{2r^{2} }]$

$V = \frac{q}{4\pi e0 r} * \frac{1}{2r^{2} } *(b^{2} -a^{2} )$

$V = \frac{q}{8\pi e0 r^{3} } * (b^{2} -a^{2} )$

Answer

$V = \frac{q (b^{2} -a^{2} )}{8\pi e0 r^{3} }$

$V = \frac{-q (a^{2} -b^{2} )}{8\pi e0 r^{3} }$

8 0

3 years ago