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steposvetlana [31]
3 years ago
11

Suppose you have two solid bars, both with square cross-sections of 1 cm2. They are both 24.6 cm long, but one is made of copper

and one of iron. You place the two side by side and braze them together, making a composite bar with a cross-section of 2 cm2. If one end of this rod is placed in boiling water and the other end in ice water, how much power will be conducted through the rod when it reaches steady state?
Physics
1 answer:
vodka [1.7K]3 years ago
7 0

Explanation:

Expression to calculate thermal resistance for iron (R_{I}) is as follows.

             R_{I} = \frac{L_{I}}{k_{I} \times A_{I}}  

where,   L_{I} = length of the iron bar

             k_{I} = thermal conductivity of iron

             A_{I} = Area of cross-section for the iron bar

Thermal resistance for copper (R_{c}) = \frac{L_{c}}{k_{c} \times A_{c}}[/tex]

where,  L_{c} = length of copper bar

             k_{c} = thermal conductivity of copper

            A_{c} = Area of cross-section for the copper bar

Now, expression for the transfer of heat per unit cell is as follows.

           Q = \frac{(100^{o} - 0^{o}}{\frac{L_{I}}{k_{I}.A_{I}} + \frac{L_{c}}{k_{c}.A_{c}}}

 Putting the given values into the above formula as follows.

       Q = \frac{(100^{o} - 0^{o})}{\frac{L_{I}}{k_{I}.A_{I}} + \frac{L_{c}}{k_{c}.A_{c}}}

  = \frac{(100^{o} - 0^{o})}{21 \times 10^{-2} m[\frac{1}{73 \times 10^{-4}m^{2}} + \frac{1}{386 \times 10^{-4}m^{2}}}

           = 2.92 Joule

It is known that heat transfer per unit time is equal to the power conducted through the rod. Hence,

                 P = \frac{Q}{T}

Here, T is 1 second so, power conducted is equal to heat transferred.

So,           P = 2.92 watt

Thus, we can conclude that 2.92 watt power will be conducted through the rod when it reaches steady state.

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At which temperature does the motion of atoms and molecules stop?
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0 Kelvin

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Four different resistors have various amounts of electric current flowing through them. Given the values of current I and resist
Artemon [7]

You did not provide the options. However, the options are

I = 6.0, R= 4.0 ohms

I = 9.0, R= 2.0ohms

I = 3.0, R= 2.0ohms

I = 8.0, R= 8.0 ohms

Answer:

The order of  the resistors from the highest to the lowest is:

I = 8.0, R= 8.0 ohms

I = 6.0, R= 4.0 ohms

I = 9.0, R= 2.0ohms

I = 3.0, R= 2.0 ohms

Explanation:

ohm's law states that voltage across a conductor is directly proportional to the current flowing through it.  V = IR

Based on this formula, the voltages in each of the resistors are calculated below from the highest to the lowest

  • For I = 8.0, R= 8.0 ohms

       V = 8 * 8 =64 volts

  •  For I = 6.0, R= 4.0 ohms

      V = 6 * 4 =24 volts

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       V = 9 * 2 =18 volts

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       V = 3 * 2 =6 volts

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3 years ago
two billiard balls moving along the same line hit each other head-on. each has a mass of 0.220 kg; one has an initial velocity o
Tems11 [23]

Hi there!

Since the collision is elastic, we must also satisfy the following condition:

Ei = Ef, or:

KEi = KEf

Begin by writing an expression for momentum. (p = mv) Remember that one ball's direction is negative; in this instance, we can let the second ball be moving LEFT.

mv1 + mv2 = mvf1 + mvf2

0.220(1.84) + 0.220(-.530) = 0.220(vf1 + vf2)

0.2882/0.220 = vf1 + vf2

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1/2mv1² + 1/2mv2² = 1/2mvf1² + 1/2mvf2²

Plug in values and simplify:

0.403315 = 1/2m(vf1² + vf2²)

Simplify further:

3.6665 = vf1² + vf2²

Use the equation derived from momentum above and solve for one variable:

vf2 = 1.31 - vf1

Plug in this expression for vf2:

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Expand:

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Simplify:

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Solve for vf1 using a graphing calculator:

vf1 = -0.53 m/s or 1.84 m/s; we must figure out which one is correct.

Since v1 is heading to the right initially with a velocity of 1.84 m/s, we know that the ball's velocity could not have stayed the same in both magnitude and direction, so the final velocity must be -0.53 m/s.

Now, we can solve for the velocity of the other ball (initial of 0.53 m/s):

vf2 = 1.31 - (-0.53) = 1.84 m/s.

Now, you could have also made the connection that when two balls of the SAME MASS experience an ELASTIC collision, the velocities are simply "exchanged" from one to another. I just used this more "extensive" method to prove this.

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