Answer: 78.89%
Explanation:
Given : Sample size : n= 1200
Sample mean : 
Standard deviation : 
We assume that it follows Gaussian distribution (Normal distribution).
Let x be a random variable that represents the shaft diameter.
Using formula, 
, the z-value corresponds to 2.39 will be :-
z-value corresponds to 2.60 will be :-
Using the standard normal table for z, we have
P-value = 
Hence, the percentage of the diameter of the total shipment of shafts will fall between 2.39 inch and 2.60 inch = 78.89%
Answer:
a) V(t) = Ldi(t)/dt
b) If current is constant, V = 0
Explanation:
a) The voltage, V(t), across an inductor is proportional to the rate of change of the current flowing across it with time.
If V represents the Voltage across the inductor
and i(t) represents the current across the inductor in time, t.
V(t) ∝ di(t)/dt
Introducing a proportionality constant,L, which is the inductance of the inductor
The general equation describing the voltage across the inductor of inductance, L, as a function of time when a current flows through it is shown below.
V(t) = Ldi(t)/dt ..................................................(1)
b) If the current flowing through the inductor is constant i.e. does not vary with time
di(t)/dt = 0 and hence the general equation (1) above becomes
V(t) = 0
Answer:
the pressure gradient in the x direction = -15.48Pa/m
Explanation:
- The concept of partial differentiation was used in the determination of the expression for u and v.
- each is partially differentiated with respect to x and the appropriate substitution was done to get the value of the pressure gradient as shown in the attached file.
Answer: (a) 36.18mm
(b) 23.52
Explanation: see attachment
It is to be noted that it is impossible to find the Maclaurin Expansion for F(x) = cotx.
<h3>What is
Maclaurin Expansion?</h3>
The Maclaurin Expansion is a Taylor series that has been expanded around the reference point zero and has the formula f(x)=f(0)+f′. (0) 1! x+f″ (0) 2! x2+⋯+f[n](0)n!
<h3>
What is the explanation for the above?</h3>
as indicated above, the Maclaurin infinite series expansion is given as:
F(x)=f(0)+f′. (0) 1! x+f″ (0) 2! x2+⋯+f[n](0)n!
If F(0) = Cot 0
F(0) = ∝ = 1/0
This is not definitive,
Hence, it is impossible to find the Maclaurin infinite series expansion for F(x) = cotx.
Learn more about Maclaurin Expansion at;
brainly.com/question/7846182
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