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Romashka [77]
4 years ago
11

Heeeeeeeeeeeeeelllllllllllllppppppppppp

Mathematics
1 answer:
Temka [501]4 years ago
3 0

Answer:

1/6*6

Step-by-step explanation:

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Wendy keeps her hamster, Fluffy, in a cage shaped like a rectangular prism that is 20 inches long, 14 inches wide, and has a vol
Alex17521 [72]

Speedy cage is 2 inches taller than fluffy cage.

<h3>How to find the volume of a rectangular prism?</h3>

The volume of rectangular prism = lwh

where

  • l =length
  • h = height
  • w = weight

Therefore,

height of fluffy cage can be calculate as follows:

4340 = 20 × 14 × h

4340 = 280h

h = 4340 / 280

h = 15.5 inches

height of Kenneth cage can be calculate as follows:

5250 = 20 × 15 × h

5250 = 300h

h = 5250 / 300

h = 17.5 inches

height difference = 17.5  - 15.5 = 2.0 inches

Hence, speedy cage is 2 inches taller than fluffy cage.

learn more on volume here: brainly.com/question/23997886

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5 0
2 years ago
Diamonds have a density of 3.5 LaTeX: \frac{g}{cm^3}g c m 3. How big is a diamond that has a mass of 0.10 g?
liubo4ka [24]

For this case we have that by definition, the density is given by:

d = \frac {M} {V}

Where:

M: It is the mass of the diamond

V: It is the volume of the diamond

According to the data of the statement we have:

d = 3.5 \frac {g} {cm ^ 3}\\M = 0.10 \ g

So the volume is:

V = \frac {M} {d}\\V = \frac {0.10 \ g} {3.5 \frac {g} {cm ^ 3}}\\V = 0.02857\\V = 0.03 \ cm^3

Thus, the volume of the diamond is approximately 0.03 \ cm ^ 3

Answer:

0.03 \ cm ^ 3

3 0
3 years ago
1. Marie deposits $125 in a savings account
slava [35]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

The formula for simple interest is

I = Prt

where I is the interest earned, P is the initial deposit, r is the rate in decimal form, and t is the time in years.  For us,

I = 125(.03)(3) which gives us an interest amount of

I = 11.25

To find out how much money she has total after that interest builds up, we add that interest amount to the initial investement amount to get

125 + 11.25 = 136.25

3 0
3 years ago
What is the probability of flipping a coin 6 times and getting all heads
abruzzese [7]
The probability of getting all heads is 1 / 2^6 = 1/64 as there is only 1 event where this happens in a possible 2^6 = 64 events. It is the same as the probability of getting all tails. The probability of getting at least 1 head is 1 - p(all tails) = 63/64.
7 0
2 years ago
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Can someone smart help me with this question fast plz
nekit [7.7K]

Answer:

I believe it is 42

Step-by-step explanation:

Angle 1 and 2 look similar so I think they are the same angle if you look at it, so I’m 99.9% sure it’s 42

7 0
3 years ago
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