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zlopas [31]
3 years ago
11

Calculate the rotational inertia of a wheel that has akinetic

Physics
1 answer:
andrew11 [14]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

J = 14.4 kg*m^2

Explanation:

Assuming that the wheel is not moving anywhere, and the kinetic energy is only due to rotation:

Ek = 1/2 * J * w^2

J = 2 * Ek / (w^2)

We need the angular speed in rad / s

566 rev/min * (1 min/ 60 s) * (2π rad / rev) = 58.22 rad/s

Then:

J = 2 * 24400 / (58.22^2) = 14.4 kg*m^2

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Because of surface tension, it is possible, with care, to support an object heavier than water on the water surface. The maximum
boyakko [2]

Answer:

\pi 1 = \frac{h}{l}

\pi 2 = б / l^2gp

\frac{h}{l} = Ф ( б / l^2gp )

Explanation:

<u>Develop a suitable set of dimensionless parameters for this problem</u>

The set of dimensionless parameters for this problem is :

\pi 1 = \frac{h}{l}

\pi 2 = б / l^2gp

\frac{h}{l} = Ф ( б / l^2gp )

and they are using the pi theorem, MLT systems

attached below is a detailed solution

7 0
3 years ago
The vector sum of the forces acting on the beam is zero, and the sum of the moments about the left end of the beam is zero. (a)
Marysya12 [62]

This question is incomplete, the complete question is;

The vector sum of the forces acting on the beam is zero, and the sum of the moments about the left end of the beam is zero.

(a) Determine the forces and and the couple

(b) Determine the sum of the moments about the right end of the beam.

(c) If you represent the 600-N force, the 200-N force, and the 30 N-m couple by a force F acting at the left end of the beam and a couple M, what is F and M?

Answer:

a)

the x-component of the force at A is A_{x} = 0

the y-component of the force at A is A_{y}  = 400 N

the couple acting at A is; M_{A} = 146 N-m

b)

the sum of the momentum about the right end of the beam is;  ∑M_{R}  = 0

c)

the equivalent force acting at the left end is; F = -400J ( N)

the couple acting at the left end is; M = - 146 N-m

Explanation:

Given that;

The sum of the forces acting on the beam is zero ∑f = 0

Sum of the moments about the left end of the beam is also zero ∑M_{L} = 0

Vector force acting at A, F_{A} = A_{x}i + A_{y}j

Now, From the image, we have;

a)

∑f = 0

F_{A} - 600j + 200j = 0i + 0j

A_{x}i + A_{y}j - 600j + 200j = 0i + 0j

A_{x}i + (A_{y} - 400)j = 0i + 0j

now by equating i- coefficients'

A_{x} = 0

so, the x-component of the force at A is A_{x} = 0

also by equating j-coefficient

A_{y} - 400 = 0

A_{y}  = 400 N

hence, the y-component of the force at A is A_{y}  = 400 N

we also have;

∑M_{L} = 0

M_{A}  - ( 30 N-m ) - ( 0.380 m )( 600 N ) + ( 0.560 m )( 200 N ) = 0

M_{A} - 30 N-m - 228 N-m + 112 Nm = 0

M_{A} - 146 N-m = 0

M_{A} = 146 N-m

Therefore, the couple acting at A is; M_{A} = 146 N-m

b)

The sum of the moments about right end of the beam is;

∑M_{R} = (0.180 m)(600N) - (30 N-m) - ( 0.56 m)(A_{y} ) + M_{A}

∑M_{R} = (108  N-m) - (30 N-m) - ( 0.56 m)(400 N ) + 146 N-m

∑M_{R} = (108 N-m) - (30 N-m) - ( 224 N-m ) + 146 N-m

∑M_{R}  = 0

Therefore, the sum of the momentum about the right end of the beam is;  ∑M_{R}  = 0

c)

The 600-N force, the 200-N force and the 30 N-m couple by a force F which is acting at the left end of the beam and a couple M.

The equivalent force at the left end will be;

F = -600j + 200j (N)

F = -400J ( N)

Therefore, the equivalent force acting at the left end is; F = -400J ( N)

Also couple acting at the left end

M = -(30 N-m) + (0.560 m)( 200N) - ( 0.380 m)( 600 N)

M = -(30 N-m) + (112 N-m) - ( 228 N-m))

M = 112 N-m - 258 N-m

M = - 146 N-m

Therefore, the couple acting at the left end is; M = - 146 N-m

7 0
3 years ago
O ônibus espacial,preso sobre o avião está em movimento ou repouso?
marissa [1.9K]
Movimento es correcto
6 0
3 years ago
A 70 kilogram hockey player skating east on an ice rink is hit by a 0.1 kilogram hockey puck moving toward the west. The puck ex
guajiro [1.7K]

Given:

70 Kilogram hockey

Hit by 0.1 kilogram

50 Newton

Description:

So in this case this bacially means that one object is experiencing a force then another object.  So the answer to the question will be 50N.

Answer: 50N (3rd Law)

Hope this helps.

4 0
3 years ago
Two blocks of masses m and M are connected by a string and pass over a frictionless pulley. Mass m hangs vertically, and mass M
horsena [70]

Answer:

sin\theta - \mu_k cos\theta = \frac{m}{M}

sin\theta - \mu_k cos\theta = 1

Explanation:

Force of friction on M mass so that it will move down the inclined plane is given as

F_f = \mu Mgcos\theta

now if it is moving down the inclined plane at constant speed

so we will have

Mgsin\theta - T - \mu mgcos\theta = 0

on other side the mass "m" will go up at constant speed

so we have

T - mg = 0

so we have

Mgsin\theta = \mu Mgcos\theta + mg

so we have

sin\theta - \mu_k cos\theta = \frac{m}{M}

for special case when m = M

then we have

sin\theta - \mu_k cos\theta = 1

5 0
3 years ago
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